Tips for better performance and tuning in Oracle SQL and PL/SQL

1) FTS (Full Table Scans) are always bad and Index usage is always good.

2) Usage of dynamic SQL within the stored procedure code is always bad even for search procedures.

3) Empty Space in an index that gets created due to the DML operations do not get used.

4) Indexes should be rebuilt at regular intervals.

5) Indexes and statistics are the same thing. Also, histograms are needed only on indexed columns.

6) Usage of cursors is always bad so avoid them like the plague.

7) Truncate command cannot be rolled back because it is a non-logged operation.

8 ) Table variables in SQL Server are always only memory resident.

9) Column order in a covered index does not matter.

10) In the case of SQL Server, one can separate the clustered index from the table.

11) Only committed data gets written to the disk.

12) Logical I/Os (LIO) are not a cause of concern, only Physical IO (PIO) are.

13) Count(1) is better performing than count(*).

14) Issue frequent commits in the application to make the transaction faster and also improve concurrency.

15) Views are evil evil DB Objects that always slow down performance.

Learn Oracle PL/SQL day to day topics

Learn Oracle PL/SQL day to day topics

• Oracle Supplied Packages
Table Storage Statistics
DBMS_STATS
Copying Statistics to Different Databases
DBMS_ALERT Procedures
DBMS_AQ and DBMS_AQADM
DBMS_DDL
DBMS_DEBUG
DBMS_PIPE
DBMS_OUTPUT
DBMS_LOGMNR
DBMS_TRACE
DBMS_SQL
DBMS_STANDARD
DBMS_SESSION
DBMS_LOB
DBMS_JOB
The Run() Procedure
DBMS_LOCK
UTL Packages

• Advanced Features of Procedures and Functions
Autonomous Transactions
Executing Autonomous Transactions
Advantages and Restrictions
Defining an Autonomous Block
Packages and Triggers
Autonomous Triggers
Autonomous PL/SQL Blocks
Transaction Visibility
Definer's and Invoker's Rights
Using the AUTHID Clause
Resolving External References
PL/SQL Wrappers
External Procedures
Alias Library Object
Call Specifications
Mapping Procedure to an External Procedure
Mapping Function to an External Procedure

• Introduction to Object Technology
Software Development
Issues with 3GL Development
Issues with Relational Database Development
Object-Relational Development
Goals of Object-Relational Development
Functional versus Object Hierarchies
Software Evolution
Type Table
Type and Class Definitions
What is an Object?
Creating a User Defined Type
Rules on Working with User Defined Types
Defining an Abstract Data Type
Inheritance
Single versus Multiple Inheritance
Polymorphism
With and Without Polymorphism
Different Object Methodologies
What is UML?
Visual Models
Attributes
Different Types of Methods

• Object-Relational Concepts
Object-Relational Databases
Object-Relational Features
Oracle Object-Relational Features
Oracle Datatypes
Abstract Datatypes
Data Dictionary Views
The CREATE TYPE Command
Object Tables
Type Methods
The Constructor Method
Working with User Defined Datatypes
Modifying Data in Object Tables
Working with Object Tables
Object Identifiers
Defining a REF
Updating REF Values
INSERTING REF Values
Dangling REFS
The DEREF Operator
ROWIDs
DBMS_ROWID Package
Different Types of Rowids
Object Methods
Different Types of Methods
Create Type Body Command
Executing Object Methods
Differences between Packages and Objects
DDL Type Commands
MAP Method
ORDER Method
MAP versus ORDER Method
STATIC Methods
Objects and Nulls
LOBS

• Collections
Records
Creating a PL/SQL Record
PL/SQL2 Tables
Table Attributes
PL/SQL8 Tables
Create a Type Specification
CAST Operator
Operator "THE"
Queries on Nested Tables
Dynamic SQL
Executing Dynamic SQL Statements in PL/SQL
Advantages of Dynamic SQL
Advantages of DBMS_SQL
DBMS_SQL Package
DBMS_SQL Example
Advantages of Native Dynamic SQL in PL/SQL
Syntax: EXECUTE IMMEDIATE Statement
Bind Variables
Defining Modes for Bind Variables
Executing DML, DCL, and DDL Statements
Executing Dynamic Multi-row Queries
Using Schema objects with Dynamic SQL
Cursor Attributes
Assigning Nulls to Bind Variables
Issues When Executing Subprograms
Debugging
Problem Analysis
Handling Exceptions
Continuing After an Exception
Using an Inner Block to Continue after an Exception
Inner Block Approach
Function Approach
Locator Variables
Temporary Tables
Storing Debugging Information
The DBMS_TRACE Package
DBMS_TRACE Constants
Managing the Volume of Tracing Information
The DBMS_DEBUG Package
Procedures in DBMS_DEBUG
Setting up a Debug Session
Performance Tuning
Working with Object Types and Collections
Bulk Binds
Bulk Collect Into Clause
Use the RETURNING Clause
NOCOPY Hint
Memory and PL/SQL
Pinning PL/SQL Programs
KEEP Procedure
What Do I to PIN?
Relative Sizes of Code to Pin
Serially Reusable Packages
Optimizing Integer Operations
Avoid NOT NULL Constraints
Rephrase Conditional Control Statements
Additional Considerations
DBMS_PROFILER
Profiler Tables
Table PLSQL_PROFILER_DATA
Additional Object-Relational Features
Type Evolution
Inheritance
Super and Subtypes
Restrictions on Overriding
Dynamic Method Dispatch
Substitutability
The TREAT Function
NOT INSTANTIABLE
Object View Hierarchies
IS OF Operator
The SYS_TYPEID Function
Object Support in Programmatic Environments
Advanced PL/SQL (I)
CASE Expressions and Statements
Searched CASE expression
The WHEN Clause
CASE Statement
Searched CASE statement
TABLE FUNCTIONS
Pipelined versus Non-pipelined
New SQL Datatypes
Performing DML Operations Inside Table Functions
Table Function with Autonomous Block
Parallelizing Table Functions
Enhancements to Bulk Operations
Bulk FETCH
Bulk FORALL with EXECUTE IMMEDIATE
Errors in DML Operation
ADVANCED QUEUEING - New Features
Java Message Service Enhancements
Advanced PL/SQL (II) and XML
Native Compilation of PL/SQL Code
Better Integration of LOB Datatypes
Multilevel Collections
MERGE STATEMENT
New PL/SQL Supplied Packages
Cursor Subquery
XML Data Type
INSERTING INTO AN XML COLUMN
Retrieving an XML Column
Updating an XML column
XMLTYPE FUNCTIONS
Common Constructs used in Xpath Expressions
DBMS_XMLGEN
SYS_XMLGEN
SYS_XMLAGG
Accessing Metadata
The DBMS_METADATA Package
DBMS_METADATA Object Types
Customizing DDL Output
GET_XML AND GET_DDL

NCFM Derivatives Market (Dealers) Module mock test questions

Derivatives Market (Dealers) Module

Q1
Weekly options trading commenced on NSE in _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) NSE does not trade in Weekly options
(b) 02-Jun-2005
(c) 04-Jul-2005
(d) 04-Jun-2005
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q2
A stock is currently selling at Rs. 70. The put option to sell the stock at Rs. 75 costs Rs. 12. What is the time value of the option? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Rs. 7
(b) Rs. 5
(c) Rs. 2
(d) Rs. 4
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q3
The value of taxable securities transaction relating to 'option in securities' is the ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) aggregate of the strike price and the option premium of such option in securities.
(b) the strike price of such 'option in securities'
(c) the option premium of such 'option in securities'
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q4
An option to buy or sell a swap, that becomes operative at the expiry of the option, is called a _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) swaption
(b) futures
(c) basket option
(d) warrant
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q5
On NSE's options market, until the buyer pays in the premium, the premium due is deducted from the available ____________ on a real time basis. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) cash deposit
(b) liquid net worth
(c) cash and non-cash deposit
(d) effective deposit
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q6
To be eligible for options trading, the market wide position limit in the stock should not be less than Rs. ___________ . [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 250 crore
(b) 100 crore
(c) 50 crore
(d) 500 crore
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q7
In case a Future Contract is not traded in a day, which of the following prices is reckoned for daily mark to market settlement? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Closing price of the last traded day
(b) Theoretical price
(c) Closing price of the futures contract
(d) Closing price of the underlying
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q8
You are the owner of a 2 million portfolio with a beta 1.0. You would like to insure your portfolio against a fall in the index of magnitude higher than 15%. Spot Nifty stands at 2200. Put options on the Nifty are available at three strike prices. Which strike will give you the insurance you want? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 1,870
(b) 1,840
(c) 1,970
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9
The maximum brokerage chargeable by a trading member in relation to trades effected in the contracts admitted to dealing on the F&O segment of NSEIL is fixed at ______ of the contract value, exclusive of statutory levies. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1.50%
(b) 2.50%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 3%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q10
Ms. Shetty has sold 600 calls on DR. REDDY'S LAB at a strike price of Rs.992 for a premium of Rs.25 per call on April 1, 2002. The closing price of equity shares of DR. REDDY'S LAB is Rs. 994 on that day. If the call option is assigned against her on that day, what is her net obligation on April 01, 2002? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Pay-out of Rs.18,300
(b) Pay-in of Rs.18,300
(c) Pay-in of Rs.13,800
(d) Pay-out of Rs.13,800
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q11
Daily Mark to Market settlement of futures takes place on ________ basis . [ 2 Marks ]

(a) T+0
(b) T+3
(c) T+5
(d) T+1
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q12
What is displayed in the NEAT Trading System Ticker Screen? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) The electronic display that continuously shows only the stock symbol, volume and price at
which each successive trade occurs.
(b) The electronic display that continuously shows only the price at which each successive
trade occurs.
(c) The electronic display that continuously shows only the stock symbol and volume at each
successive trade occurs.
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q13
Each user of the trading member in F&O segment of NSEIL is assigned a unique _________ ID [ 3 Marks ]

(a) user
(b) trading member
(c) branch
(d) exchange
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q14
_______ order allows the user to execute a contract as soon as it is entered into the system, failing which the order is immediately cancelled from the system. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) GTD
(b) IOC
(c) Limit
(d) GTC
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15
Which of the following statement is true? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Basket trading is illegal in India.
(b) NSE does not allow basket trading in it's F&O Segment.
(c) Basket trading has been discontinued in the F&O Segment.
(d) F&O Segment has a Basket trading facility.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16
Immediate or cancel is an order which will automatically __________ in F&O segment of NSEIL. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) be matched because it being a preferential order
(b) be cancelled if it is not matched immediately and in its entirety
(c) get stored in the system for matching, if not executed immediately
(d) cancel the unmatched portion of the order quantity
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q17
Ms. Asha sells an options contract of M/s. XYZ Ltd. (Lot Size: 1000) expiring on 29/Sep/2005 for Rs. 10. The strike price of the contract is Rs. 300. The spot price of the share is Rs. 290. The securities transaction tax thereon would be _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Rs. 10
(b) Rs. 40
(c) Rs. 53
(d) Rs. 11
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q18
A market index is very important for its use ___________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) as a barometer for market behavior
(b) as a benchmark of portfolio performance
(c) in portfolio management
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q19
An 'authorised person' in the Futures & Options segment is ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) any person who is acting in any capacity on behalf of the trading member or a participant for
any activity relating to the trades done and executed
(b) a person authorised by the exchange as an approved user of a trading member
(c) an approved user of a participant
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q20
NSCCL's on-line position monitoring system monitors open position of _____________on a real time basis. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) clearing member only
(b) trading member only
(c) clearing member and trading member
(d) dealer only
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q21
The option price is the _______. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) price paid by the buyer of the option to the seller of the option
(b) price at which an option trades in the market
(c) sum of intrinsic value plus time value of an option
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q22
Which of the following contracts are compulsorily settled on exercise date? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) In the money option contracts
(b) Deep at the money option contracts
(c) At the money option contracts
(d) Out of the money option contracts
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q23
Which of the following are derivatives? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Options
(b) Futures
(c) Forward Rate Agreements
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q24
Initial margin is collected to __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) make good daily losses
(b) square-off a position on the expiry of the contract
(c) safeguard against potential losses on out-standing positions
(d) provide for losses that have already occurred
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q25
Transaction tax is payable by the __________ of the derivative instrument. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) buyer
(b) designer
(c) seller
(d) originator
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q26
The intrinsic value of a call option is the amount the option is ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) in-the-money
(b) at-the-money
(c) out-of-the-money
(d) above-the-money
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q27
The beta of Nifty is _______. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 1.7
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) (-)1
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q28
A stock broker is allowed to buy, sell or deal in securities __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) only on being admitted as a member of a stock exchange
(b) on submission of document with SEBI for registration
(c) on submission of document with stock exchange for admission
(d) only on having a certificate of registration granted by SEBI
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q29
The market impact cost on a trade of Rs. 3 million of the S&P CNX Nifty works out to be about 0.05%. This means that if S&P CNX Nifty is at 2000, a sell order of that value will go through at a price of Rs. _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1999
(b) 1995
(c) 1,999.50
(d) 1,995.50
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q30
ETFs can be ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) bought and sold on an exchange
(b) bought and sold directly with the mutual fund
(c) bought on an exchange but sold only directly to the mutual fund
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q31
Ms. Shetty has sold 300 calls on WIPRO at a strike price of Rs.1503 for a premium of Rs.28 per call on April 1, 2002. The closing price of equity shares of WIPRO is Rs. 1553 on that day. If the call option is assigned against her on that day, what is her net obligation on April 01, 2002? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Pay-out of Rs. 21,600
(b) Pay-in of Rs.15,000
(c) Pay-out of Rs.13,400
(d) Pay-in of Rs.6,600
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q32
VaR methodology seeks to measure the amount of value that a portfolio may stand to lose within a certain horizon time period due to potential changes in ______________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) underlying exposures
(b) underlying asset spot price
(c) underlying stock volatility
(d) underlying index volatility
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q33
Mr. A sells a futures contract of M/s. XYZ Ltd. (Lot Size: 1000) expiring on 29/Sep/2005 for Rs. 300. The spot price of the share is Rs. 290. The securities transaction tax thereon would be ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Rs. 10
(b) Rs. 80
(c) Rs. 20
(d) Rs. 51
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q34
An index put option at a strike of Rs. 2176 is selling at a premium of Rs. 18. At what index level will it break even for the buyer of the option? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Rs. 2194
(b) Rs. 2196
(c) Rs. 2158
(d) Rs. 2162
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q35
Which of the following is the duty of the trading member? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Sending the periodical statement of accounts to clients
(b) Maintaining unique client codes
(c) Ensuring timely pay-in and pay-out of funds
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q36
Which of the following should be disclosed separately for long and short positions, in respect of each series of equity index futures as of the balance sheet date? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Number of equity index futures contracts having open position
(b) Number of units of equity index futures pertaining to the contracts
(c) The daily settlement price
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q37
Futures differs from forwards in the sense that ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) settlement of contract takes place in the future
(b) both parties are bound to give/take delivery
(c) positions are marked-to-market everyday
(d) contracts are custom designed
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q38
You have bought a portfolio of securities on the exchange. To eliminate the risk arising out of market, you should _____. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) buy index futures
(b) buy stock futures
(c) sell stock futures
(d) sell index futures
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q39
The clearing member/trading member is required to disclose to the clearing corporation details of any person(s) acting in concert who together own _____% or more of the open interest of all futures and options contracts on a particular underlying index on the stock exchange. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q40
The spot price of TISCO is Rs. 2050 and the cost of financing is 10%. What is the fair price of a one month futures contract on TISCO? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 2,082.80
(b) 2,066.30
(c) 2,085.15
(d) 2,099.40
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q41
Cyrus is short 600 WIPRO July Puts at strike Rs. 1520 for a premium of Rs. 33 each on July 22, 2002. On July 25, 2002 (the expiration day of the contract), the spot price of WIPRO closes at Rs.1553, while the July futures on WIPRO close at 1555. Does Cyrus have an obligation to the Clearing Corporation on his positions, and how much, if any? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Yes. Rs.19,800 pay-out
(b) No pay in or pay-out on expiration of contract
(c) Yes. Rs.18,900 pay-out
(d) Yes. Rs.19,800 pay-in
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q42
Which of the following is required for personnel working in the industry in order to dispense quality intermediation? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) To follow certain code of conduct.
(b) To possess requisite skills and knowledge.
(c) To have a proper understanding of the business and skills to help it remain competitive.
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q43
June futures contract on WIPRO closed at Rs. 1153 on May 20 and at Rs. 1150 on May 21, 2002. Raju has a short position of 4000 in the June futures contract. On May 21, 2002, he sells 3000 units of 10-June-2002 expiring Put Options on WIPRO at strike price of Rs.1145 for a premium of Rs.28 per unit. What is his net obligation to / from the Clearing Corporation for May 21, 2002? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Pay-in of Rs.32,000
(b) Pay-in of Rs.72,000
(c) Pay-out of Rs.96,000
(d) Pay-out of Rs.32,000
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q44
Assume that the base value of a market capitalization weighted index were 1000 and the base market capitalisation were Rs.35,000 crore. If the current market capitalisation is Rs.77,000 crore, the index is at Rs. ____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 2,110
(b) 2,350
(c) 2,250
(d) 2,200
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q45
Around 60% of the trading volume on the American Stock Exchange is from __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Index Funds
(b) Index Futures
(c) ETFs
(d) Index Options
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q46
The SEBI Committee on derivatives has recommended that the exposure limits for brokers should be linked to the __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) daily turnover of the broker
(b) networth of the broker
(c) satisfactory margin payment track record of the broker
(d) deposits kept by the broker with the Exchange/Clearing corporation
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q47
If the annual risk free rate is 10%, then the `r' used in the Black Scholes formula should be ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 0.095
(b) 0.1398
(c) 1.1
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q48
At the balance sheet date, the balance in the `initial margin equity index futures account' should be shown separately under the head ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) prepaid expenses
(b) current assets
(c) outstanding balance
(d) current liabilities
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q49
Hedging with index futures means ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) long security, short security
(b) long index futures, short index futures
(c) long security, short index futures
(d) long security, long index futures
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q50
Which of the following is not the duty of the trading member? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Filling of 'Know Your Client' form
(b) Assisting the client to arrange for margins
(c) Bringing risk factors to the knowledge of client
(d) Execution of Client Broker Agreement
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q51
On expiry, the settlement price of an index futures contract is _______. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) opening price of futures contract
(b) closing index value
(c) closing price of futures contract
(d) opening index value
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q52
The NEAT F&O trading system _____________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) allows one to enter combination trades
(b) does not allow combination trades
(c) allows only a single order placement at a time
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q53
Santosh is bearish about ABC Ltd.and sells ten one-month ABC Ltd.futures contracts at Rs.2,96,000. On the last Thursday of the month, ABC Ltd.closes at Rs.310. He makes a _________. (assume one lot = 100) [ 1 Mark ]

(a) profit of Rs. 7,000
(b) loss of Rs. 7,000
(c) profit of Rs. 14,000
(d) loss of Rs. 14,000
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q54
A stock broker applies for registration to SEBI _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) through stock exchange(s) of which he or she is admitted as a member
(b) directly
(c) through association of members
(d) through Ministry of Finance
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q55
NCFM stands for ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) National Certification in Financial Management
(b) National Certification in Financial Markets
(c) NSE's Certification in Financial Markets
(d) NSE's Certification in Financial Management
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q56
In Indian context, derivative includes:
A) A security derived from a debt instrument, share, loan whether secured or unsecured, risk instrument or contract for differences or any other form of security;
B) A contract which derives its value from the prices, or index of prices, of underlying securities; [ 2 Marks ]

(a) A
(b) B
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q57
The futures price is ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) the price of a contract in the future
(b) spot price plus cost of carry
(c) the price at which a futures contract trades in the market
(d) the price set by the exchange
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q58
Index options on the S&P CNX Nifty can be exercised ___________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) any time on or before maturity
(b) upon maturity
(c) any time upto maturity
(d) on a date pre-specified by the trading member
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q59
A trading member allowed to clear his own trades only is known as _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Trading member - clearing member
(b) Trading members are not allowed to clear their own trades
(c) professional clearing member
(d) self clearing member
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q60
The initial margin amount is large enough to cover a one-day loss that can be encountered on ______% of the days. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 95
(b) 50
(c) 99
(d) 90
(e) I am not attempting the question

NCFM Compliance Officers (Brokers) Module mock test papers

Compliance Officers (Brokers) Module

Q1
Spot delivery contract means delivery & payment on the ________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a)next day of the contract
(b)same day as the date of the contract
(c)same day as the date of the contract or on the next day
(d)delivery on the date of the contract and payment on the next day
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q2
Fraud as per the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003 includes ___________. (Select the odd one). [ 1 Mark ]

(a)general comments made in good faith in regard to the trends in the securities market
(b)a promise made without any intention of performing it
(c)a suggestion as to a fact which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true
(d)an active concealment of a fact by a person having knowledge or belief of the fact
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q3
Principal officer as per SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 1993 means ___________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a)a director of the portfolio manager who is responsible for the activities of portfolio
management and has been designated as principal officer by the portfolio manager
(b)a director of the portfolio manager who is not responsible for the activities of portfolio
management but may have been designated as principal officer
(c)a director of the portfolio manager who is responsible for the activities of portfolio management but may not have been designated as principal officer by the portfolio manager
(d)a director of the portfolio manager who is not responsible for the activities of portfolio management and has not been designated as principal officer
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q4
While preparing the CTCL file, the date format should be _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)DDMMYY
(b)YYDDMM
(c)DDMMYYYY
(d)YYYYDDMM
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q5
Where the scheme of Corporatisation and demutualisation of a stock exchange is approved, it shall be published __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)immediately by the SEBI in the Official Gazette and within 7 days by the Recognised Stock
Exchange in two daily newspapers as specified by the SEBI
(b)within 7 days by the SEBI in the Official Gazette and by the Recognised Stock Exchange in
two daily newspapers as specified by the SEBI
(c)within 7 days by the Recognised Stock Exchange in two daily newspapers as specified by the SEBI
(d)immediately by the SEBI in the Official Gazette and by the Recognised Stock Exchange in
two daily newspapers as specified by the SEBI
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q6
The words and expressions used and not defined in the SEBI Act,1992, shall have the meanings assigned to them as in the ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)SEBI (Disclosure and Investor Protection) Guidelines, 2000
(b)Companies Act, 1956 or the SEBI (Disclosure and Investor Protection) Guidelines, 2000
(c)Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 or the Depositories Act, 1996
(d)Companies Act, 1956 or the Industries (Development & Regulation) Act
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q7
State which of the following is true? As per SEBI (Ombudsman) Regulations, 2003, in order to be appointed as an Ombudsman ____________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a)a person should be below thirty five years of age
(b)a person should be above fifty five years of age
(c)a person should be below forty five years of age
(d)a person should be above forty five years of age
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q8
State which of the following is false? SEBI shall take into account the following, for considering the grant of a certificate of registration to a trading or clearing member [ 1 Mark ]

(a)The applicant has financial liabilities payable to the creditors of his company
(b)The applicant is not subjected to disciplinary proceedings
(c)The applicant has adequate infrastructure to effectively undertake his activities
(d)The applicant is eligible to be admitted as a trading member
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q9
The procedure for obtaining registration certificate by the stock brokers, sub-brokers, etc. is __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)partly specified in Section 12 and partly determined by the SEBI (Stock Brokers and Sub Brokers) Rules 1992
(b)specified in Section 12 of the SEBI (Stock Brokers and Sub Brokers) Rules 1992
(c)as per the SEBI (Disclosure and Investor Protection) Guidelines, 2000
(d)determined by the SEBI (Stock Brokers and Sub Brokers) Rules 1992
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q10
Underwriting as per the SEBI (Underwriters) Rules, 1993 means ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)an agreement to subscribe to the securities of a body corporate when the existing shareholders of the body corporate subscribe to the securities offered to them
(b)an agreement to subscribe to the securities of a body corporate when the public subscribe to the securities offered to them
(c)an agreement to subscribe to the securities of a body corporate when the existing shareholders of the body corporate or the public do not subscribe to the securities offered to
them
(d)an agreement to subscribe to the securities of a body corporate when the existing shareholders of the body corporate and the public subscribe to the securities offered to
them
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q11
Who can be penalised u/s 15B of the SEBI Act,1992, for failure to enter into agreement with clients? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)An Investor
(b)An Investor Association
(c)A registered intermediary
(d)FIIs
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q12
Choose the correct statement. Stock-broker is the member of the Stock Exchange but sub-broker is not the member of the Stock Exchange [ 1 Mark ]

(a)No, neither of them are member of the Stock Exchange.
(b)No, the stock broker is not the member of the Stock Exchange, but sub-broker is the
member of the Stock Exchange
(c)No, both the Stock broker and sub-broker are members of the Stock Exchange.
(d)Yes, the stock broker is the member of the Stock exchange, but sub-broker is not the
member of the Stock Exchange.
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q13
A Trading member may appear through a legal practitioner only if the Constituent is represented through a legal practitioner in an Arbitration matter [ 3 Marks ]

(a)TRUE
(b)FALSE
(c)I am not attempting the question

Q14
State which of the following is not a manipulative, fraudulent and unfair trade practice? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)An intermediary not disclosing to his client transactions entered into on his behalf including taking an option position.
(b)An intermediary providing his clients with such information relating to a security as cannot be verified by the clients before dealing in such security.
(c)An intermediary reporting trading transactions to his clients entered into on their behalf in an
inflated manner in order to increase his commsission and brokerage.
(d)An intermediary issuing contract notes
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q15
The SEBI is exempted to comply with the provisions of ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Securities Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956
(b)Income Tax Act,1961
(c)SEBI Act, 1992
(d)Companies Act, 1956
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q16
Broker, Sub- Broker agreement has been prescribed by _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)the SEBI
(b)the RBI
(c)the Central Govt
(d)None of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q17
Which of the following terms is not defined under the Securities Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Stock Exchange
(b)Government Securities
(c)Commodity Futures
(d)Recognised Stock Exchange
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q18
Which of the following books of accounts is required to be maintained by the member of a Recognised Stock Exchange? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Register containing names and addresses of other members of the recognised stock exchange
(b)Securities misplaced book
(c)Minutes books of the meetings with other members
(d)Sauda Book
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q19
The SEBI has powers to issue directions to any company in respect of __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)matters specified in Section 12A of the SEBI Act
(b)matters specified in Section 11A of the SEBI Act
(c)matters specified in Section 1o of the SEBI Act
(d)matters specified in Section 12 of the SEBI Act
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q20
What is the possible action against a stock broker or a sub broker, for failure to satisfy the net worth or capital adequacy norms, if any, specified by the SEBI? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Monetary penalty
(b)Action under the Enquiry Proceeding Regulations
(c)Prosecution
(d)None of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q21
What is the liability under SEBI (Stock Broker and Sub-Broker) Regulations, 1992, for contravention of the Act, rules or the regulations ? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Suspension
(b)Prosecution u/s 24 of the Act
(c)Monetary penalty
(d)None of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q22
Currently, institutional trades on exchanges make the use of _________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a)XTP System
(b)STP System
(c)MTP System
(d)ATP System
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q23
Exchange can revise the price bands of a specific security by way of ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)only through a broadcast message
(b)announcing through info vendors
(c)public notice
(d)issuing circular
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q24
As per SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 1993, state which of the following is false? Investment of funds of the client by a portfolio manager can be made in ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)trade bill
(b)certificate of deposit
(c)commercial paper
(d)Any or all of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q25
State which of the following is true, as per the SEBI (Procedure for Holding Enquiry by Enquiry Officer and Imposing Penalty) Regulations, 2002? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)An officer who has conducted an inspection in respect of alleged violation by an intermediary
shall be appointed as an enquiry officer for the purpose of holding an enquiry into the matter.
(b)An officer who has dealt in the matter of alleged violation by an intermediary shall be
appointed as an enquiry officer for the purpose of holding an enquiry into the matter.
(c)No officer who has dealt in the matter of alleged violation by an intermediary shall be
appointed as an enquiry officer for the purpose of holding an enquiry into the matter.
(d)An officer who has conducted an investigation in respect of alleged violation by an intermediary shall be appointed as an enquiry officer for the purpose of holding an enquiry into the matter.
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q26
State which of the following is not a price sensitive information as per the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Expansion plans
(b)Change in the Board of Directors of the company
(c)Issue of securities
(d)Amalgamation
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q27
Exchange Traded Interest Rate Derivates has been introduced in Indian Financial Market by ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)NSCCL
(b)NSDL
(c)RBI
(d)SEBI
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q28
State which of the following is true? As per the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992 ___________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a)A listed company is required to intimate to stock exchanges information received
pertaining to initial disclosure and continuous disclosures within 5 days of receipt thereof
(b)A listed company is required to intimate to stock exchanges information received pertaining to initial disclosure and continuous disclosures within 7 days of receipt thereof
(c)A listed company is not required to intimate to stock exchanges information received pertaining to initial disclosure and continuous disclosures
(d)A listed company is required to intimate to stock exchanges information received pertaining to initial disclosure and continuous disclosures within 2 days of receipt thereof
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q29
State which of the following is false? A stock broker or sub-broker shall be liable for prosecution under Section 24 of the SEBI Act if he ____________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a)fails to pay penalty imposed by the adjudicating officer
(b)indulges in insider trading in violation of SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992
(c)acts as an unregistered sub-broker or deals with an unregistered sub-broker
(d)violates SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market)
Regulations, 2003
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q30
In demat environment, a security can have a distinctive number [ 2 Marks ]

(a)TRUE
(b)FALSE
(c)I am not attempting the question

Q31
A Clearing Member of a particular sub-segment can clear deals through ________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a)the Clearing Corporation of that particular sub-segment
(b)any Clearing Corporation
(c)Clearing Corporation of the National Stock Exchange only
(d)None of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q32
Collective Investment Scheme means __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)investment by investors in more than one scheme at the same time
(b)contributions or payments by investors, which are pooled and utilised for
product / property scheme or arrangement, managed on behalf of investors
(c)investment scheme run by mutual funds
(d)investment made by investors collectively
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q33
Details of Clients in the F&O Segment, having order value of more than Rs. 1 lakh, have to be furnished to the Exchange as per ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Details are not required to be furnished
(b)SEBI guidelines
(c)Income Tax guidelines
(d)RBI guidelines
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q34
An appeal against the order or decision of the SAT shall be made within __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)45 days from the receipt of the order
(b)60 days from the receipt of the order
(c)40 days from the receipt of the order
(d)50 days from the receipt of the order
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q35
Exposure of Settlement Guarantee Fund to any single bank shall not be ___________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a)more than 10% of total liquid assets forming part of SGF
(b)no limits
(c)more than 50% of total liquid assets forming part of SGF
(d)more than 15% of total liquid assets forming part of SGF
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q36
The Clearing Corporation cannot suo moto annul any deal [ 2 Marks ]

(a)TRUE
(b)FALSE
(c)I am not attempting the question

Q37
The SEBI Act came into force on _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)30th January,1992
(b)1st January,1992
(c)15th January,1992
(d)1st February,1992
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q38
When shall SEBI reject the scheme of Corporatisation and Demutualisation of a Recognised Stock Exchange? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)In the interest of trade and also in the public interest after giving the concerned
Recognised Stock Exchange an opportunity of being heard.
(b)On its own without giving the concerned Recognised Stock Exchange an opportunity to be
heard
(c)When the concerned Recognised Stock Exchange has not produced the required documents
and supportings
(d)None of the above.
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q39
The application for the recognition or renewal of recognition of a Stock Exchange as per the SC(R)R, 1957 is made in _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Form A-I
(b)Form C
(c)Form C-I
(d)Form A
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q40
Under the SC(R)R, 1957, what shall be the status of the members nominated by SEBI on the governing bodies of the Recognised Stock Exchange? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Same status but powers differ in some respect from those exercised by the other members of the governing body
(b)Different status and powers from the other members of the governing body
(c)Status superior to that of the other members of the governing body
(d)Same status and powers as other members of the governing body
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q41
As per section 17A of the SC(R)R, 1957, the periodical returns to be submitted by every Recognised Stock Exchange shall contain __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)number of shares delivered through the clearing house
(b)any matter specified by the SEBI
(c)the number of securities listed and delisted during the previous three months
(d)All of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q42
Surrender of Membership by a Trading Member has to be approved by ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)the Exchange
(b)the Clearing Member
(c)the RBI
(d)All of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q43
Which of the following statements is true? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Fraudulent or unfair trade practice does not includes any act amounting to arriving at a
fair of price of a security
(b)Fraudulent or unfair trade practice does not include any act amounting to manipulation of price
of a security.
(c)Manipulation of price of security is not a fraudulent practice
(d)Fraudulent or unfair trade practice does not include any omission amounting to manipulation of price of a security
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q44
The term 'Contract' is defined under the Securities Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956 as ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)a contract for or relating to the purchase or sale of commodities
(b)a contract for or relating to the purchase or sale of real estate instruments
(c)a contract for or relating to the purchase or sale of securities
(d)None of the above.
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q45
Short sale means a sale of security _________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a)where the seller sells his shares within a short period after he purchased the same shares
(b)where the seller does not have an exercisable & unconditional right on the shares
(c)where the buyer has no right on sale of securities
(d)where the sale takes place within a short period
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q46
The Fund constituted under the SEBI Act,1992, for meeting expenses and crediting sums received by SEBI is named as ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Securities and Exchange Board of India General Fund
(b)Consolidated Fund of India
(c)SEBI General Receipt and Expenditure Fund
(d)Consolidated General Fund of Securities and Exchange Board of India
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q47
Co-operative societies can be clearing members [ 2 Marks ]

(a)False, except in certain conditions.
(b)TRUE
(c)FALSE
(d)True, except in certain conditions
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q48
Exchange furnishes turnover details to SEBI [ 1 Mark ]

(a)FALSE
(b)TRUE
(c)I am not attempting the question

Q49
State which of the following is false, as per the SEBI (Procedure for Holding Enquiry by Enquiry Officer and Imposing Penalty) Regulations, 2002? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)If the enquiry officer has recommended a minor penalty, the Chairman cannot impose
major penalty
(b)If the enquiry officer has recommended a minor penalty, the Member of SEBI can impose major penalty subject to giving notice to the intermediary to make a written submission.
(c)If the enquiry officer has recommended a minor penalty, the Chairman of SEBI can impose
major penalty subject to giving notice to the intermediary to make a written submission.
(d)I am not attempting the question

Q50
The Books of accounts and documents shall be maintained and preserved by the members of a Recognised Stock Exchange for a period of _______ [ 2 Marks ]

(a)four years
(b)five years
(c)three years
(d)two years
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q51
No trading member shall be eligible to continue or be nominated on the Executive Committee of a stock exchange, if ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)his certificate of registration as a stock broker has been cancelled by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or he has been expelled by the Exchange
(b)if his certificate of registration as a stock broker or his trading rights have been suspended by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or the Exchange
(c)if he falls in the category of Notified Persons as per the Special Courts (Trial of Offences Relating to Transaction in Securities) Act, 1992 and two years have not elapsed from the date the member is denotified under the said Act
(d)All of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q52
State which of the following is false? As per SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992, SEBI has the right to investigate and inspect the books of accounts of an insider or any other person specified therein under Section 11 of the SEBI Act, 1992, for the following purposes [ 2 Marks ]

(a)To investigate into the books to verify any errors
(b)To investigate into the books on complaints received from intermediaries on the allegations of insider trading
(c)To investigate the books suo moto on the basis of its own knowledge or information in its
possession in order to protect the interest of investors in securities against breach of these
regulations.
(d)To investigate into the books on complaints received from investors of allegations of insider
trading
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q53
As per the SEBI (Ombudsman) Regulations, 2003, a panel of persons, out of which, a person may be appointed as Stipendiary Ombudsman shall remain in force for a period of ___________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)five years
(b)three years
(c)two years
(d)four years
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q54
New securities can be admitted as per NSE (CM Segment) Trading Regulation ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Part A
(b)Part B
(c)Part C
(d)None of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q55
To whom can an appeal be made if a recognised stock exchange has delisted the securities of a listed company? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)High Court
(b)Central Government
(c)Supreme Court
(d)Securities Appellate Tribunal
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q56
As per the SEBI (Underwriters) Regulations, 1993, an underwriter whose application for renewal of certificate has been refused ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)cannot continue to act as an underwriter even for existing commitments underwritten during
the validity period of the certificate
(b)shall continue to act as an underwriter for a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of the
communication from the SEBI
(c)shall continue to act as underwriter
(d)cease to act as underwriter from the date of receipt of the communication from the SEBI
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q57
The Securities and Exchange Board of India may require, further information or clarifications, regarding the dealings in securities, to consider the application for grant of certificate of registration to a stock broker. For this purpose, the following can appear on behalf of the applicant [ 1 Mark ]

(a)any employee of the company
(b)Principal officer of the company.
(c)a shareholder of the company
(d)Auditor of the company
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q58
Model format of Risk Disclosure documents has been prescribed by SEBI for the trading members to give to all clients mandatorily [ 2 Marks ]

(a)FALSE
(b)TRUE
(c)I am not attempting the question

Q59
Rolling segment is different from Trade to Trade segment [ 2 Marks ]

(a)FALSE
(b)TRUE
(c)I am not attempting the question

Q60
Under Rule 10 of Securities Contract (Regulation) Rules, 1957, maximum how many persons can be nominated on the governing body of the Recognised Stock Exchange? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Five
(b)Four
(c)Three
(d)Seven
(e)I am not attempting the question


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NCFM Test at NSE Centres in different cities/locations

Test at NSE Centres



Test Centre Test Centre Contact Numbers

1 National Stock Exchange of India Ltd.
"Exchange Plaza",
Bandra Kurla Complex,
Bandra (East),
Mumbai-400051 Tel : 022 - 26598171-72
022 - 26598216 / 8252
022 - 26598100 - 114
Fax : 022 – 26598393
Email : ncfm@nse.co.in

2 National Stock Exchange of India Ltd.
4th Floor,
Jeevan Vihar Building
Parliament Street
New Delhi-110001 Tel : 011-23344313-27
Fax : 011-23366658
Email : ncfm_delhi@nse.co.in

3 National Stock Exchange of India Ltd.
1st Floor, Park View Apartments
99, Rash Behari Avenue
Kolkata – 700 029 Tel : (033) 24631802-1805,
24631809-1812 (Board Nos)
Fax. (033) 24631791, 24631806
Email : ncfm_kolkata@nse.co.in

4 National Stock Exchange of India Ltd.
7th Floor, Arihant Nitco Park
90, Dr.Radhakrishnan Salai
Mylapore
Chennai - 600 004 Tel : 044-28475100
Fax : 044-28473633
Email : ncfm_chennai@nse.co.in


5 National Stock Exchange of India Ltd.
H No.3-6-322
Mahavir House, IInd Floor
Chamber no.203 & 204
Basheerbagh
Hyderabad : 500029 Tel : 040-23227084/5
Fax : 040-23227086
Email : ncfm_hyderabad@nse.co.in

6 National Stock Exchange of India Ltd.
406 Sakar II
Near Ellis Bridge
Ahmedabad – 380 006 Tel : 079-26580212 - 13
Fax : 079-26576123
Email : ncfm_ahmedabad@nse.co.in

NCFM Beginers module questions

Q1 Capital Employed is equal to _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Fixed Assets + Current Assets +Current Liabilities
(b) Fixed Assets + Current Assets - Current Liabilities
(c) Fixed Assets - Current Assets + Current Liabilities
(d) Fixed Assets - Current Assets - Current Liabilities
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q2 If a client buys shares worth Rs. 2,55,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 3,45,000 through a broker, then the maximum brokerage payable to the broker is _____________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 20000
(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 25000
(d) Rs. 10000
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q3 Return on Total Asset is equal to __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Gross Income/Average Total Asset
(b) Average total asset/Gross Income
(c) Return on Equity/Average total Asset
(d) Net income /Average Total Asset
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q4 Which of the following is a benefit of participation in a depository? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) No stamp duty on transfer of securities.
(b) Elimination of risks associated with physical certificates such as bad delivery, fake securities,etc.
(c) Nomination facility.
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q5 The benchmark stock market index of India is ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Dow Jones
(b) Nikkei 225
(c) S&P 500
(d) the Nifty
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q6 Which of the following is not true about offer of shares through normal public issue? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) In normal Public issue, investors bid for shares at the floor price or above and after the closure of the process the price is determined for allotment of shares.
(b) In case of the normal public issue the demand for an issue is known at the close of the issue.
(c) In case of offer of shares through normal public issue price at which securities will be allotted is known to an investor in advance .
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q7 At 8% annual inflation rate, an item costing Rs. 100 today, would cost Rs. _______ after one year. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 108
(b) Rs. 118
(c) Rs. 208
(d) Rs. 98
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q8 At 6% annual inflation rate, an item costing Rs. 100 today, would cost Rs. _______ after two years. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 224
(b) Rs. 112.36
(c) Rs. 122.46
(d) Rs. 124.30
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9 The Margin which takes care that all daily losses must be met by the investor by depositing of further collateral by the close of business, the following day is known as _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Mark to Market Margin
(b) Minimum Margin
(c) Cross Margin
(d) Initial Margin
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q10 What is the present value of Rs. 6000 receivable after two years at a discount rate of 5% under continuous discounting? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 5429.02
(b) Rs. 6000
(c) Rs. 5700
(d) Rs. 6300
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q11 What is the dividend yield of ABC Co Share having a face value of Rs 100, market value of 360 and an annual dividend of Rs 10? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1%
(b) 2.77%
(c) 10%
(d) 4%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q12 Earnings Per Share (EPS) is calculated by _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Gross Profit / No. of equity shareholders
(b) Net Profit / No. of equity shareholders
(c) Gross Profit / No. of Ordinary shares outstanding
(d) Net Profit / No. of Ordinary shares outstanding
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q13 Which amongst these is not a Debt market instrument? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Public Sector Units bonds
(b) Corporate Securities
(c) FIIs
(d) Government Securities
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q14 Which rate of return accounts for intra-year compounding? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Effective
(b) Stated
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15 ___________ is a good indicator of the stock market behaviour. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Reliance
(b) TISCO
(c) Infosys
(d) Nifty index
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16 Market Capitalisation is _____________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Value of shares of the company held by Foreign Investors
(b) No. of shares issued by a company multiplied by it's market price
(c) Value of shares held by promoters of the company
(d) Value of shares in the company held by the public
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q17 What is the present value of Rs 10000 receivable after 1 year discounted at 10% p.a.? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 11000
(b) 10000
(c) 9000
(d) 9090.9
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q18 What factor/s affect the interest rate? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Government borrowings
(b) Supply of money
(c) Inflation rate
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q19 Which of the following needs to be considered by an investor, while investing? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Assess risk-return profile of the investment.
(b) Know the liquidity and safety aspects of the investment.
(c) Obtain written documents explaining the investment.
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q20 Money market mutual funds can invest in _______. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) treasury bills
(b) certificate of deposits
(c) commercial paper
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q21 Which of the following is not true about a debt instrument? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It signifies a ownership right in the company.
(b) It carries interest paying obligation.
(c) It has a fixed maturity.
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q22 Which type of corporate action splits the existing shares of a particular face value into smaller denominations? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Stock Split
(b) Bonus Issue
(c) Buy Back
(d) Right Issue
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q23 How many securities are there in Nifty index? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 30
(b) 100
(c) 500
(d) 50
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q24 Which of the following is TRUE about Primary Markets? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Primary Markets are markets where commodities are sold.
(b) Primary Market is the place where public can buy and sell securities from one another.
(c) Primary Markets refer to the mobilization of funds from the public by corporates through the issue of shares / debentures.
(d) Primary Markets are places where only short term instruments are traded.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q25 The future value of a Rs.10,000 investment done today, which gives an annual rate of return of 20% per annum, after one year should be ____________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 12,200
(b) Rs. 12,500
(c) Rs. 12,000
(d) Rs. 12,640
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q26 Which of the following problems have been eliminated by Depositories? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Reduction in the share transfer time to the buyer.
(b) Risk of stolen, fake, forged shares.
(c) Stamp duty on transfer of shares in dematerialized form.
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q27 Which of the following is not a benefit of investing in mutual funds? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Investment in Mutual funds leads to diversification of holdings.
(b) Mutual funds are managed by professional fund managers.
(c) Mutual Funds regularly provide investors with information on the value of their investments.
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q28 Funds which invest only in the stocks comprising an index and aim to give returns commensurate with the index returns are called _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Index Funds
(b) Active Funds
(c) Dormant Funds
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q29 Depositories are like banks for securities. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) TRUE
(b) FALSE
(c) Dormant Funds
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q30 At 12% annual inflation rate, an item costing Rs. 100 today, would cost Rs. _______ after one year. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 114
(b) Rs. 112
(c) Rs. 102
(d) Rs. 113
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q31 The future value of a Rs.10,000 investment, which gives an annual rate of return of 20% per annum, after two years would grow to _________ (assume discrete compounding) [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 14,400
(b) Rs. 14,000
(c) Rs, 14,250
(d) Rs. 14,500
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q32 An investment should provide an after-tax return which is ________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) at least higher than the rate of inflation
(b) less than the rate of inflation
(c) equal to the rate of inflation
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q33 Which of the following is not true about ADR? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) ADR represents the foreign shares of the company held on deposit by a custodian bank in the company's home country.
(b) ADRs may be used in public or private markets inside or outside US.
(c) ADRs do not eliminate the currency risk associated with an investment in a non-U.S. company.
(d) An ADR is a U.S. dollar denominated form of equity ownership in a non-U.S. company.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q34 What are the segments of Securities Market? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Primary market and Secondary market
(b) New issues market
(c) Primary market
(d) Secondary market
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q35 Which instrument among these is considered the most challenging and rewarding investment option, when compared to other investment options? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Equity
(b) Fixed Deposit
(c) Bonds
(d) Treasury Bill
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q36 'Bid' means the _____________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Seller's price
(b) Traded Price
(c) Market price
(d) Buyer's price
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q37 Profit and Loss account of a company shows _______. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The revenues and expenses during particular period of time.
(b) The revenues and expenses of the company at a particular point of time.
(c) The financial position of the company at a particular point of time.
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q38 Which instrument among these have historically shown to give the highest returns when invested over long periods? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Debentures
(b) Equity
(c) Fixed Deposit
(d) Bank Deposit
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q39 The lenders use ______________ ratio to assess debt servicing capacity of a firm. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Interest Coverage ratio
(b) Debt-Asset Ratio
(c) Acid-test Ratio
(d) Current Ratio
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q40 _______ funds do not have a fixed date of redemption. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Open ended funds
(b) Close ended funds
(c) Diversified funds
(d) Both A and B
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q41 'Ask' means the ________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Buyer's price
(b) Seller's price
(c) Market price
(d) Traded Price
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q42 ________________ is maintained by NSE to make good investor claims, which may arise out of non-settlement of obligations by the trading member, who has been declared defaulter, in respect of trades executed on the Exchange. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Investor Education and Reimbursement Fund (IERF)
(b) Investor Reimbursement Fund (IRF)
(c) Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)
(d) Investor Protection Fund (IPF)
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q43 At 10% annual inflation rate, an item costing Rs. 100 today, would cost Rs. _______ after one year. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs.101
(b) Rs. 110
(c) Rs.115
(d) Rs. 109
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q44 What is the present value of Rs. 3000 receivable after two years at a discount rate of 5% under continuous discounting? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 3150
(b) Rs. 2714.51
(c) Rs. 2850
(d) Rs. 2970
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q45 The future value of a Rs.12,000 investment made today, which gives an annual rate of return of 10% per annum, after one year should be _________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 12,200
(b) Rs. 12,500
(c) Rs. 13,200
(d) Rs. 13,100
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q46 Nifty index is used in _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Derivatives
(b) Index Funds
(c) Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q47 Demutualisation of stock exchanges refer to _________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) the legal structure of an exchange whereby the ownership, the management and the trading rights at the exchange are segregated from one another
(b) the legal structure of an exchange whereby the ownership and the management at the exchange are segregated from one another
(c) the legal structure of an exchange whereby the ownership, the management and the trading rights at the exchange vests in one person
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q48 Which securities can an investor invest in? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Shares
(b) Debentures
(c) Mutual Funds
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q49 _____________ gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation to sell a given quantity of underlying asset at a given price on or before a given future date. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Put Option
(b) Forward
(c) Future
(d) Call Option
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q50 The holders of which instrument are members of the company and have voting rights? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Treasury Bill
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Debenture
(d) Equity
(e) I am not attempting the question

________________________________________

NCFM CORPORATE GOVERNANCE MODULE MOCK TEST QUESTIONS

CORPORATE GOVERNANCE MODULE

Q1
Cadbury Report came out in _____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1993
(b) 1992
(c) 1991
(d) 1994
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q2
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, non-executive directors shall be required to disclose their shareholding: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) In the associate companies other than the listed company in which they are proposed to be
appointed
(b) In the group companies of the listed company in which they are proposed to be appointed
(c) In other companies other than the listed company in which they are proposed to be
appointed
(d) In the listed company in which they are proposed to be appointed as directors
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q3
There are 13 directors in Company A. What shall be the quorum at the Board meeting? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 5
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q4
The term 'material unlisted Indian Subsidiary' mean an unlisted subsidiary incorporated in ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Incorporation is not required
(b) US
(c) Europe
(d) India
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q5
A listed company is required to lay down procedures to inform board members about the risk assessment and minimization procedures. This information is given as per Clause _____ of the listing agreement. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 49
(b) 36
(c) 51
(d) 12
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q6
Information regarding sale of material nature, of investments, subsidiaries, assets, which is not in normal course of business has to be placed before _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Audit Committee
(b) Senior Management
(c) Board of Directors
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q7
Shareholder grievance committee shall be headed by a _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Executive Director
(b) Chairman of the Board of Directors
(c) Non- Executive Director
(d) Functional head
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q8
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, a statement of funds utilized for purposes other than those stated in the offer document/prospectus/notice shall be certified by: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Statutory auditors
(b) Internal auditors
(c) Audit Committee
(d) Practicing Company Secretary
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9
State which of the following is false: As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the role of the Audit Committee shall include the following: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Reviewing with the management the adequacy of internal control systems
(b) Reviewing with the management the adequacy of secretarial audit
(c) Reviewing with the management the adequacy of internal audit function
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q10
As per the sub-clause V of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, CFO includes _____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Chairman of the Audit Committee
(b) Head of Accounts department
(c) Whole time finance director
(d) Chairman
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q11
As per Sub-clause V of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, certification is required to be done by the: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Executive Director of the company
(b) CEO and CFO of the company
(c) Independent Director of the company
(d) Company Secretary of the company
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q12
Board meetings should be held at ________ intervals. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Bimonthly
(b) Annual
(c) Monthly
(d) Regular
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q13
Clause 49 was introduced in the Listing Agreement pursuant to the recommendations of the report of the Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) FALSE
(b) False, only amendments were made to the Clause
(c) TRUE
(d) False, Clause 49 existed prior to the set up of the Committee
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q14
State which of the following is true: As per Section 292A of the Companies Act, 1956, the following shall have the right to vote in an Audit Committee meeting: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The members of the audit committee
(b) The internal auditors
(c) The director in charge of finance
(d) The statutory auditors
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15
The inclusion of an independent director in a Board brings ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Independence in management
(b) A more practical approach to the decision making process
(c) Objective view
(d) A more knowledgeable view and a more professional view
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the disclosures on remuneration shall be made in the Annual Report in the: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Chairman's speech
(b) Disclosure section
(c) Remuneration section
(d) Corporate Governance section
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q17
Announcement in respect to the unaudited quarterly results should be made in the newspaper within _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 72 hours from the closure of the Board meeting.
(b) 48 hours from the closure of the Board meeting
(c) 7 days from the date of the Board meeting
(d) 15 minutes of the closure of the Board meeting
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q18
Training programme of directors should include __________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Laws applicable to the company.
(b) Accounting Standards.
(c) Simulation
(d) Provisions of laws.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q19
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, a statement in summary form of transactions with related parties in the ordinary course of business shall be placed before the relevant committee [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Monthly
(b) Annually
(c) Periodically
(d) Quarterly
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q20
The presence of independent directors would improve _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Board effectiveness
(b) Board independence
(c) Board performance
(d) Corporate governance
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q21
While submitting the Compliance Certificate under Clause 49 (VII) of the Listing Agreement to the Stock Exchanges the certificate should be ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Sent along with the Annual Report
(b) annexed to the Directors; Report
(c) Annexed to the Annual Report
(d) Annexed to the Corporate Governance Report
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q22
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement to be denoted as an independent director, an individual should not be an executive of the company in the immediately preceding _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 5 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 3 years
(d) 2 years
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q23
As regards, disclosure regarding changes in accounting policies in the CEO/CFO certificate, _________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) No disclosure is required to be made.
(b) Significant changes should be disclosed only on directive of the SEBI.
(c) Significant changes should be disclosed.
(d) Changes in the accounting policies in the last two years should be made.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q24
The credibility and effectiveness of a non executive director in the board room will depend on ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Qualifications
(b) His ability to acquire governance as well as company specific knowledge and skills
(c) Adaptability
(d) Capability to align his objectives with the objectives of the company
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q25
As regards disclosure under item 'General Shareholder Information' rating of which organization shall be indicated in the Corporate Governance Report: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) ICRA
(b) CRISIL
(c) CARE
(d) SMERA
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q26
As per the Listing Agreement shareholding pattern should be intimated _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Quarterly
(b) Annually
(c) Bi monthly
(d) Half yearly
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q27
Training requirements for non-executive and executive directors should _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Vary or be same depending upon the size of the company
(b) Same for both the classes of directors
(c) Partly vary and partly be same for both the classes of directors
(d) Vary for both the classes of directors
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q28
A company can _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Disclose price sensitive information to the stock exchange if the SEBI asks for that
(b) Not disclose the price sensitive information to the stock exchange
(c) Disclose price sensitive information to the stock exchange unless the Stock Exchange is
already aware of it.
(d) Disclose price sensitive information to the stock exchange
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q29
The maximum time gap between two audit committee meetings shall not be more than ______.
[ 1 Mark ]

(a) 2 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 3 months
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q30
As per provisions of the Listing Agreement, disclosure on materially significant related party transactions that has potential conflict with the interests of the company at large is to be mandatorily made in the Report on Corporate Governance: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Disclosure on all related party transactions is to be mandatorily made in the Report on
Corporate Governance
(b) Listed companies are not required to comply with this.
(c) Listed companies may do this on the directive of SEBI/Stock Exchange.
(d) Listed companies may do so on the directive of Registrar of Companies/Ministry of Company
Affairs.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q31
A listed company is required to keep the Stock Exchange informed of events such as strikes, lock-outs, closure on account of power cuts, etc in order to enable the shareholders to appraise the position of the company [ 1 Mark ]

(a) After the cessation of the event
(b) At the time of occurrence of the event
(c) Annually at the end of the year.
(d) Both at the time of occurrence of the event and after the cessation of the event
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q32
As per Sub-Clause VII of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, a listed company is required to obtain a certificate of compliance of conditions of corporate governance from: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Internal Auditors
(b) Practicing Advocates
(c) Practicing Cost Accountants
(d) Practicing Company Secretaries
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q33
As per the definition given by clause 49, an Independent Director should not be a shareholder of the company i.e. owning ____ percent or more of the block of voting share. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) two
(b) one third
(c) three
(d) four
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q34
The Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee was constituted by ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) SEBI
(b) Ministry of Company Affairs
(c) Department of Company Affairs
(d) Controller of Capital Issues
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q35
The information about risk/returns should be provided to the shareholders so that it can be ensured about adequate [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Risk management systems
(b) Knowledge management systems
(c) Information systems
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q36
As per the Listing Agreement Annual Report should be submitted to the Stock Exchange ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) within 15 days from the end of the year
(b) within 5 minutes of its issuance
(c) within 30 days from the end of the financial year
(d) as soon as it is issued
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q37
C a shareholder of Company A requested for copies of the register under section 301 of the Companies Act 1956. His request was turned down stating that as the register contains details about interest of directors and contracts in which they are interested, it is confidential and copies cannot be given. Is the refusal valid? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Yes, unless the Board approves such inspection.
(b) Yes, as he is not a director, he cannot inspect such confidential documents.
(c) No. Being a member he has a right to inspect the Register.
(d) Yes, unless the shareholders pass a resolution in favor of it.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q38
Sub-Clause VII of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement requires certification of compliance of conditions of corporate governance. This certificate is required to be sent annually to: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(b) Shareholders of the company
(c) Directors of the company
(d) Auditors of the company
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q39
The Audit Committee ________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Can obtain outside legal or other professional advice only if the Board approves.
(b) Can obtain outside legal or other professional advice only if the members decide by way of
resolution.
(c) Can not obtain outside legal or other professional advice.
(d) Can obtain outside legal or other professional advice.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q40
The maximum time gap between two board meetings shall not be more than _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) four months
(b) six months
(c) three months
(d) two months
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q41
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, details of the following transactions which are not in the normal course of business shall be placed before the relevant committee: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Transactions above Rs.5,000/- with related parties
(b) All transactions with related parties
(c) Significant transactions with related parties
(d) Material individual transactions with related parties
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q42
As per the Listing Agreement intimation of cash bonuses should be given to the Stock Exchange _____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) As soon as the Board meeting is over
(b) Atleast 7 days prior to the Board meeting
(c) as soon as it is issued
(d) Atleast 5 days prior to the Board meeting
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q43
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, Management Discussion and Analysis Report should include discussion on matters relating to: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Other industries
(b) Developments in general market
(c) Macroeconomic scenario in the country
(d) Industry structure and developments
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q44
As per the Revised Clause 49 of the listing agreement who may review the functioning of the Whistle Blower mechanism, in case it exists in the company? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Audit Committee
(b) Concerned Department Heads
(c) Senior Officers
(d) Board of Directors
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q45
Training of Board members is a must under Clause 49. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) TRUE
(b) FALSE
(c) True, provided all the directors pass a unanimous resolution.
(d) False, training of the CEO, CFO and the Chairman of every committee is mandatory.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q46
The Company shall obtain a certificate regarding compliance of conditions of corporate governance from ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Auditors
(b) Practicing Company Secretary
(c) Either of the two
(d) Both
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q47
There are ______ general types of corporate ownerships. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q48
The minimum number of non-executive directors on board should be _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Not less than 50%
(b) Not less than 33%
(c) Not less than 60%
(d) Not less than 75%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q49
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, Chairman of the Remuneration Committee should be: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Chairman of the company
(b) Managing Director of the company
(c) Executive Director of the company
(d) Independent Director of the company
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q50
As per Section 297 of the Companies Act, 1956, certain contracts require the consent of: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Audit Committee Meeting
(b) Managing Director of the Company
(c) Shareholders at a General Meeting
(d) Board of Directors
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q51
The OECD Principles of Corporate Governance provides insight into corporate governance framework at a _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Micro level
(b) Working level
(c) Macro level
(d) Upper level
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q52
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the format for quarterly compliance certificate is required to be made as per : [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Annexure IA of Clause 49
(b) Annexure IC of Clause 49
(c) Annexure IB of Clause 49
(d) Annexure ID of Clause 49
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q53
Annual Report of a listed company contains a brief statement on the company's philosophy on code of governance. The is conforming [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Clause 49 of the listing agreement
(b) Clause 38 of the listing agreement
(c) Clause 51 of the listing agreement
(d) Clause 41 of the listing agreement
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q54
Under Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the unaudited financial results should be furnished to the Stock Exchange within ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1 month from the end of the half year
(b) 1 month from the end of the quarter.
(c) 2 months from the end of the half year.
(d) 2 months from the end of the quarter.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q55
The filing under Clause 41 of the Listing Agreement should be made within _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Within 15 days from the end of the quarter
(b) as soon as the meeting is over
(c) 15 minutes from the closure of the concerned meeting
(d) Within 30 days from the end of the half year
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q56
As per Section 292A of the Companies Act, 1956, an Audit Committee of the Board shall comprise of not less than: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Four directors
(b) Two directors
(c) Three directors
(d) Five directors
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q57
X & Y, both directors of Company A are brothers who stay in the same apartment. Company A decided to do away with sending notice to X as Y promised to inform X about the meeting? Is the contention of Company A valid? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Yes, if all directors agree
(b) yes, only if X agrees
(c) No
(d) Yes
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q58
Management Discussion and Analysis report should form part of the ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Audit Report to Board
(b) Annual Report to Shareholders
(c) Compliance report to Stock Exchanges
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q59
State which of the following is true: As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, reviewing with the management the annual financial statements before submission to the Board for approval includes [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Disclosures of material related & non-related party transactions
(b) Disclosure of any party transactions
(c) Disclosure of any related party transactions
(d) Disclosure of the list of relatives
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q60
As per the OECD Principles of Corporate Governance-2004, corporate governance framework should recognize the rights of stakeholders through _______________ agreements. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) mutual
(b) no
(c) tacit
(d) formal
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q61
State which of the following is false: As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the report of the Remuneration Committee should comprise of: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Composition of the committee
(b) Remuneration policy
(c) Attendance during the year
(d) Location and time where the meetings were held
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q62
Report on Corporate Governance forms clause 49(__) of the listing agreement. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) VI
(b) IV
(c) VII
(d) V
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q63
Whistle blower is ____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) An employee involved in marketing products
(b) An employee or ex-employee providing information on violations of law, financial
malpractice etc
(c) An ex-employee intimating instances of violations of law, malpractice etc
(d) An advertising agent
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q64
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the Company is required to disclose in the Annual Report: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The number of non-convertible instruments held by non-executive directors
(b) The number of shares and convertible instruments held by non-executive directors
(c) The number of shares and convertible instruments held by non-executive directors in other
companies
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q65
Interested directors can participate in discussions pertaining to the contract he is interested.
[ 1 Mark ]

(a) FALSE
(b) True, provided he does not vote
(c) TRUE
(d) True, provided the quorum is present
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q66
A separate _______ cell has to be set up by stock exchanges to monitor the compliance of revised clause 49 by the companies. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Evaluating
(b) Monitoring
(c) Enforcing
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q67
Atleast _____ independent director on the board of Directors of the holding company shall be director on the board of directors of a material non listed Indian subsidiary company. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q68
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, a statement in summary form of transactions with related parties in the ordinary course of business shall be placed before the : [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Shareholders committee
(b) Executive committee
(c) Remuneration committee
(d) Audit committee
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q69
If in respect of any item in the format laid down in Clause 41 of the Listing Agreement varies by ______________ from the respective unaudited results as determined after review by the auditors, the company shall explain the reasons thereof. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 20%
(b) 20% or more
(c) 30% or more
(d) 30%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q70
Commencement of Commercial Operations or Production has to be reported to Stock Exchange under clause ____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 50
(b) 43
(c) 36
(d) 41
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q71
For compliance of conditions of clause 49 of the listing agreement, the Board of Directors of a listed company is required to set up: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Remuneration Committee
(b) Audit Committee
(c) Both Audit Committee and Remuneration Committee
(d) Audit Committee, Remuneration Committee and Investor's Grievance Committee
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q72
A director shall not be a member in more than ____ committees. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q73
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the following person shall act as the Secretary to the Audit Committee: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Company Secretary
(b) Finance Director
(c) Chief Financial Officer
(d) Statutory Auditor
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q74
A listed company is required to _____________ a half-yearly declaration of financial performance to ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) mandatorily; each shareholder
(b) mandatorily; each household of shareholders
(c) non-mandatorily; each shareholder
(d) non-mandatorily; each household of shareholders
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q75
State which of the following is false: As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the role of the Audit Committee shall include reviewing with the management: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The qualifications in the final audit report
(b) The functioning of the Whistle Blower Mechanism
(c) The quarterly financial statements
(d) The annual financial statements
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q76
A is the Company Secretary of X Co. Ltd listed in the National Stock Exchange complying with Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement places the summary statement containing related party disclosures before the designated Committee at each of its meeting. D a director of X Co. Ltd. contended that the statement was required to be placed before the Committee every year and not at every meeting. Is the contention of D valid? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) No. The Clause says periodically
(b) No. The Clause says quarterly
(c) No. The Clause says monthly
(d) Yes.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q77
The Annual Report of a company is required to be sent to the stock exchange along with:
[ 1 Mark ]

(a) Certificate from practicing company secretary regarding compliance of conditions of
Corporate Governance as per Clause 49
(b) Certificate from the Chief Executive Officer of the company regarding compliance of conditions of Corporate Governance as per Clause 49
(c) Certificate from the senior management regarding compliance of conditions of Corporate
Governance as per Clause 49
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q78
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement the Board should comprise of _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) More than fifty percent but less than sixty percent non-executive directors
(b) Not less than fifty percent non-executive directors
(c) Less than fifty percent non-executive directors
(d) fifty percent non-executive directors
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q79
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement the code of conduct should be displayed on the ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Annual report of the company
(b) Notice board of the company
(c) Website of the company
(d) Press release
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q80
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the Shareholder's Grievance Committee should comprise of: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Four Directors
(b) Three Directors
(c) Two Directors
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q81
The revised clause 49 is not applicable to ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Indian Banks
(b) Listed Development Financial Institutions
(c) Mutual Fund
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q82
State which of the following is false: As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the role of the Audit Committee shall include: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Assisting the statutory auditor
(b) Recommending the appointment, re-appointment and replacement or removal of the
statutory auditor
(c) Approval of payment to statutory auditors
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q83
As per the OECD Principles of Corporate Governance-2004, corporate governance framework should promote [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Transparent and efficient markets
(b) Large and open markets
(c) Responsible & ernst investors
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q84
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, senior management means: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Personnel of the company who are members of its core management team
(b) Personnel of the company who are members of the Executive Committee
(c) Personnel of the company who are members of the Audit Committee
(d) Personnel of the company who are members of the Board of Directors
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q85
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, non-executive directors are required to disclose their shareholding: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Prior to their appointment
(b) On 1st April every year
(c) Immediately after appointment
(d) On 31st March every year
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q86
For the purpose of reckoning the limit of Chairmanship of Committees, _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Only membership of Audit Committee and Shareholders Grievance Committee shall be
considered
(b) Chairmanship of any Committee may be considered in absence of Audit Committee/
Shareholders GrievanceCommittee.
(c) Only Chairmanship of Audit Committee and Shareholders Grievance Committee shall be
considered.
(d) Only Chairmanship of Remuneration Committee shall be considered in the absence of Audit
Committee.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q87
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement one of the areas of training for directors could be [ 1 Mark ]

(a) History and organisation structure
(b) Information systems being used by the company
(c) Industry statistics
(d) Business model of the company
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q88
The compliance report thus submitted should be signed by ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Statutory Auditors
(b) Chairman of the Company
(c) Either Compliance officer or the CEO of the company
(d) Managing Director of the Company
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q89
A presentation made by the company to ____________ can either be hosted on company's website or stock exchange website. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Institutional investors
(b) Institutional investors and analysts
(c) QIBs and analysts
(d) Analysts
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q90
An independent director should not be related to persons occupying positions [ 1 Mark ]

(a) In the senior management
(b) At the board level or at one level below the board
(c) Reporting to the senior management
(d) In the finance department
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q91
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, Quorum for Audit Committee meeting shall be:
[ 1 Mark ]

(a) Three members or one-third of the members of the Committee whichever is greater
(b) Four members or one-third of the members of the Committee whichever is greater
(c) Two members or one-third of the members of the committee whichever is greater
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q92
As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, information on recruitment of which level of officers are required to be placed before the Board? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Middle level
(b) Just below the board level
(c) Board level
(d) Upper level
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q93
The fees/compensation to the non-executive directors requires previous approval of ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Board of Directors' in board meeting
(b) shareholders in general meeting
(c) Both of the above
(d) Approval from SEBI is required
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q94
As regards disclosure pertaining to Means of Communication in the Corporate Governance Report __________ results are to be made. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Bi monthly
(b) Half yearly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Annually
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q95
Discussion on financial performance with respect to operational performance should form the part of _____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Director's Report
(b) Auditors Report
(c) Corporate Governance Report
(d) Management Discussion and Analysis
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q96
Preparation of annual report and accounts is a key element of _________ by the companies. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Valuations
(b) Assessment
(c) Reporting
(d) Enquiring
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q97
As per Annexure I (d) of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, every listed company is __________ required to establish a whistle blower policy. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Mandatorily
(b) Non-mandatorily, but where all the present employees give their consent is
(c) Mandatorily on directive of the CLB
(d) Non-mandatorily
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q98
Blue Ribbon Committee was sponsored by ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) NYSE and NYMEX
(b) NYSE and NASDAQ
(c) NYSE and NCDEX
(d) NYSE and NASD
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q99
The credibility and effectiveness of a non executive director in the board room will depend on [ 1 Mark ]

(a) His ability to acquire governance as well as company specific knowledge and skills
(b) Motives
(c) Adaptability to issues & concerns raised
(d) Qualifications that he has acquired
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q100
A holds 1.95% of the share capital of Company B. If he wishes to enter into a contract with Company B, is he required to comply with Section 299 of the Companies Act 1956? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) No. as holding is not 2 %
(b) Yes as holding more than 1% of the Share capital
(c) No. as holding is less than 2%
(d) Yes
(e) I am not attempting the question

NCFM COMMODITIES MARKET MODULE MOCK TEST QUESTIONS

COMMODITIES MARKET MODULE

Q1
RBDPLNKAK is the symbol for _____________________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) RBD Palm Olein Kakinad
(b) Medium staple cotton Bhatinda
(c) Refined Soya Oil Indore
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q2
Traditionally ____________ has been the largest producers of gold in the world. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Europe
(b) South America
(c) South Asia
(d) South Africa
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q3
Commodities, which are to be received by a clearing member, are delivered to him in the depository clearing system in respect of depository deals on the respective __________ day as per instructions of the exchange/ clearing house. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Expiration
(b) Pay-in
(c) Settlement
(d) Pay-out
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q4
If the value of the claim, difference or dispute is up to ___________, then they are to be referred to a sole arbitrator. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Rs.50 Lakh
(b) Rs.10 Lakh
(c) Rs.75 Lakh
(d) Rs.25 Lakh
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q5
By using the currency forward market to sell dollars forward, an _________ can lock on to a rate today and reduce his uncertainty. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Arbitrager
(b) Speculator
(c) Importer
(d) Exporter
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q6
OTC derivatives are considered risky because __________________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) they are not settled on a clearing house
(b) they do not follow any formal rules or mechanisms
(c) there is no formal margining system
(d) all of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q7
All the exchanges, which deal with forward contracts, are required to obtain certificate of registration from the _______________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Commodity Board of Trading
(b) Commodity Exchanges
(c) Forward Markets Commission (FMC)
(d) Government of India
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q8
This option to give delivery is given during a period identified as _______________________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Delivery notice period
(b) Settlement period
(c) Delivery period
(d) Option notice period
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q9
The first use of derivatives contract was ________________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) to manage price uncertainty
(b) for speculation
(c) for arbitrage
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q10
To ensure financial integrity and market integrity, the FMC prescribes certain regulatory measures. Which of the following is not a measure prescribed? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Limit on net open positions
(b) Price determination
(c) Special margin deposits
(d) Circuit-filters or limit on price fluctuations
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q11
A futures contract is nothing but a forward contract that is __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Sold by mutual funds
(b) Sold by banks
(c) Traded across the counter
(d) Exchange traded
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q12
In matters where the exchange is a party to the dispute, the civil courts at __________have exclusive jurisdiction. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Calcutta
(d) Ahmedabad
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q13
Final settlement happens on the ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) last trading day of the month
(b) last trading day of the week
(c) last trading day of the futures contract
(d) none of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q14
The open positions of PCMs are arrived at by ____________the open positions of all the TCMs clearing through him, in contracts in which they have traded. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Netting
(b) Comparing
(c) Subtracting
(d) Aggregating
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q15
A trader requires to take a long gold futures position worth Rs.5,00,000 as part of his hedging strategy. Two month futures trade at Rs.6500 per 10 gms. Unit of trading is 100 gms and delivery unit is one Kg. How many units must he purchase to give him the hedge? [ 4 Marks ]

(a) 8 units
(b) 11 units
(c) 5 units
(d) 10 units
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q16
A trader has purchased crude oil futures at Rs.750 per barrel. He wishes to limit his loss to 50%. He does so by placing a stop order to sell an offsetting contract if the price falls to or below __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs.375
(b) Rs.650
(c) Rs.825
(d) Rs.1125
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q17
Gold trades at Rs.6000 per 10 gms in the spot market. Three-month gold futures trade at Rs.6150. One unit of trading is 100 gms and the delivery unit for the gold futures contract on the NCDEX is 1 kg. A speculator who expects gold prices to fall in the near future sells 10 units of gold futures. Two months later gold futures trade at Rs.5900 per 10 gms. He makes a profit/loss of ______________________. [ 4 Marks ]

(a) (+)25,000
(b) (-)2500
(c) (-)25,000
(d) (+)2500
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q18
A trader sells three-month call options on 10 units of gold with a strike of Rs.7000 per 10 gms at a premium of Rs.70. Unit of trading is 100 gms. On the day of expiration, the spot price of gold is Rs.6980/10 gms. What is his net payoff? [ 4 Marks ]

(a) (-) 1,000
(b) (+) 1,000
(c) (+) 700
(d) (+) 7000
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q19
Which of the following futures don't trade on the NCDEX? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Six month futures
(b) One month futures
(c) Three month futures
(d) Two month futures
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q20
The exchange levies initial margin on derivatives contracts using the concept of ______________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) TVM
(b) NPV
(c) IRR
(d) VaR
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q21
The margin is charged so as to cover __________ loss that can be encountered on the position on 99% of the days. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) One day loss
(b) One week loss
(c) One month loss
(d) One trading period loss
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q22
The selling constituent will be responsible for the following: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Payment of entry tax, octroi, etc., when the commodities are brought into the designated local area for lodging the same with the warehouse.
(b) Obtaining registration under the relevant state sales tax laws, filing of returns, payment of taxes and due compliance of laws.
(c) Complying with any check-post regulations prescribed under the local sales tax, entry tax or other municipal laws and ensuring that the prescribed documents accompany the goods.
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q23
Which of the following is not a national level multicommodity exchange? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Ahmedabad commodity exchange
(b) National Board of Trade
(c) National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange of India Ltd
(d) Multi Commodity Exchange of India
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q24
A cotton trader bought ten one-month, long staple cotton futures contracts at Rs.6020 per Quintal at the beginning of the day. The unit of trading is 11 bales and each contract is for delivery of 55 bales. The settlement price at the end of the day was Rs.6050 per Quintal. The trader's MTM account will show (11 bales = 18.7 Quintal) [ 4 Marks ]

(a) (+)1500
(b) (+)5610
(c) (-)5610
(d) (-)1500
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q25
___________ give the buyer the right but not the obligation to buy a given quantity of the underlying asset, at a given price on or before a given future date. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Futures
(b) Forwards
(c) Call options
(d) Put options
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q26
Which of the following is an investment asset? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Apartment
(b) Car
(c) Bonds
(d) Computer
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q27
An call option with a strike price of 150 trades in the market at Rs.12. The spot price is Rs.160. The time value of the option is Rs._________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 10
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q28
Due to the ________ nature of the underlying assets, physical settlement in commodity derivatives creates the need for warehousing. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Volatile
(b) Valuable
(c) Bulky
(d) Varying
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q29
Who identifies the buyer to whom the delivery notice is assigned? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The clearing corporation
(b) The buyer
(c) The exchange
(d) The warehouse
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q30
Physical settlement in a commodity futures market involves the physical delivery of ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the futures contract
(b) the profits
(c) the underlying commodity
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q31
A trader sells 30 units of gold futures at Rs.6500 per 10 grms. What is the value of his open short position? Unit of trading is 100 gms and delivery unit is one Kg. [ 4 Marks ]

(a) Rs.1,95,000
(b) Rs.19,50,000
(c) Rs.195,00,000
(d) Rs.19,500
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q32
On the 15th of June a firm involved in industrial fabrication knows that it will require 30000 kgs of silver on August 15 to meet a certain contract. The spot price of silver is Rs.1680 per kg and the August silver futures price is Rs.1730. A unit of trading is 5 Kgs and the delivery unit is 30 Kgs. The fabricator can hedge his position by _____________________________. [ 4 Marks ]

(a) Buying 1000 units of August silver futures
(b) Buying 6000 units of August silver futures
(c) Selling 6000 units of August silver futures
(d) Selling 1000 units of August silver futures
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q33
Members can opt to meet the security deposit requirement by way of ______________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Bank guarantee
(b) Cash
(c) Fixed deposit receipts
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q34
An option gives the _________ the right to do something. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Seller
(b) Exchange
(c) Clearing house
(d) Buyer
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q35
Which of the following cannot form the underlying for a commodity derivative contract? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Nifty
(b) Cotton
(c) Silver
(d) Wheat
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q36
____________ is the closing price of the underlying commodity on the last trading day of the futures contract. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Market price
(b) Final settlement price
(c) Auction price
(d) Daily settlement price
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q37
A trading member has proprietary and client positions in April gold futures contract. On his proprietary account, he sold 3000 trading units at Rs.6000 per 10 gms. On account of client A, he bought 2000 trading units at Rs.6012 per 10 gms and sold 1500 units at Rs.6020 per 10 gms, and on account of client B, he sold 2000 trading units at Rs.5990 per 10 gms. What is the outstanding position on which he would be margined? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 5500
(b) 7500
(c) 6000
(d) 3000
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q38
The __________ market reflects the price of domestically crushed soybean. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Indore
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q39
A trading member has proprietary and client positions in a March cotton futures contract. On his proprietary account, he bought 5000 trading units at Rs.6000 per Quintal and sold 2500 at Rs.6015 per Quintal. On account of client A, he sold 2000 trading units at Rs.6012 per Quintal, and on account of client B, he bought 1000 trading units at Rs.5990 per Quintal. What is the outstanding position on which he would be margined? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 8500
(b) 4500
(c) 9500
(d) 5500
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q40
A company knows that it will require 33,000 bales of cotton in three months. The hedge ratio works out to be 0.85. The unit of trading is 11 bales and the delivery unit for cotton on the NCDEX is 55 bales. The company can obtain a hedge by _______________________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Buying 2550 units of three-month cotton futures
(b) Selling 600 units of three-month cotton futures.
(c) Buying 600 units of three-month cotton futures.
(d) Selling 2550 units of three-month cotton futures
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q41
Prices in an organised derivatives market reflect the perception of market participants about the ____________________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Present
(b) Variability of spot prices
(c) Future
(d) Past
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q42
There would be liability for payment of sales tax when ______________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The contract is settled in the same state as the exchange
(b) The contract is settled in a state other than the state where the exchange is located.
(c) The contract is settled in a state other than the state where the buyer is located.
(d) The futures contract fructifies into a sale and culminates into delivery
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q43
It is the responsibility of the __________constituent to comply with the relevant local state sales tax laws and other local enactments. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Selling and buying
(b) Clearing house
(c) Buying
(d) Selling
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q44
The amount that must be deposited in the margin account at the time a futures contract is first entered into is known as _____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) MTM margin
(b) Initial margin
(c) Security deposit
(d) Collateral
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q45
In order to prevent erroneous order entry by trading members, operating price ranges on the NCDEX are kept at _____from the base price. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) +/- 16%
(b) +/- 10%
(c) +/- 8%
(d) +/-20%
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q46
The seller intending to make delivery takes the commodities to ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The designated warehouse
(b) The clearing house
(c) The buyer
(d) The exchange
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q47
_________is the approved custodian for acceptance of Government of India securities under the security deposit requirement. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) NSE
(b) NSCCL
(c) NSDL
(d) NCDEX
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q48
A gold merchant sold twenty units of one-month gold futures contracts at Rs.6000 per 10 gms at the beginning of the day. The unit of trading is 100 gms and each contract is for delivery of one kg of gold. The settlement price at the end of the day was Rs.5950 per 10 gms. The trader's MTM account would show__________. [ 4 Marks ]

(a) (-)7500
(b) (-)10000
(c) (+)10000
(d) (+)7500
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q49
Soy oil is the derivative of _______________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Sunflower seeds
(b) Soybean
(c) CPO
(d) Soy
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q50
Whenever delivery notices are given by the seller, the ___________ identifies the buyer to whom this notice may be assigned. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The clearing house
(b) The buyer
(c) The exchange
(d) The seller
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q51
Gold trades in the spot market at Rs.6000 per 10 grams. The fixed charge for storing gold is Rs.310 per deposit upto 500 kgs. And the variable storage costs are Rs.55 per week. Assume that the storage costs are paid at the time of deposit and the risk-free rate is 10% per annum. What would the price of one-month gold futures if the delivery unit is one kg? Assume that one month is equal to 4 weeks. [ 4 Marks ]

(a) 6120
(b) 6056
(c) 6068
(d) 6086
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q52
Delivery in respect of all deals for the clearing in commodities happens through the _________________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Clearing house
(b) Exchange
(c) Approved banks
(d) Depository clearing system
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q53
A January expiration contract would expire on the ____________of January. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 28th
(b) Last Thursday
(c) 20th
(d) Last Friday
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q54
Which of the following feature differentiates a commodity futures contract from a financial futures contract? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Standardised contract size
(b) MTM settlement
(c) Varying quality of underlying asset
(d) Exchange traded product
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q55
A trader has purchased crude oil futures at Rs.750 per barrel. He wishes to limit his loss to 20%. He does so by placing a stop order to sell an offsetting contract if the price falls to or below __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs.600
(b) Rs.650
(c) Rs.800
(d) Rs.825
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q56
___________ give the buyer the right but not the obligation to sell a given quantity of the underlying asset, at a given price on or before a given future date. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Forwards
(b) Futures
(c) Put options
(d) Call options
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q57
One unit of trading for soy bean futures is 10 Quintals, and delivery unit is 100 Quintals. A trader buys 10 units of soy bean at Rs.1500/Quintal on the futures market. A week later soy bean futures trade at Rs.1450/Quintal. How much profit/loss has he made on his position? [ 4 Marks ]

(a) (+)50,000
(b) (+)5000
(c) (-)5000
(d) (-)50,000
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q58
An put option with a strike price of 150 trades in the market at Rs.8. The spot price is Rs.160. The time value of the option is Rs._________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 0
(d) 2
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q59
Of the following, NCDEX trades ________ futures. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Wheat
(b) Pepper
(c) Jaggery
(d) Soybean
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q60
On the 15th of January a refined soy oil producer has negotiated a contract to sell 10,000 Kgs of soy oil. It has been agreed that the price that will apply in the contract is the market price on the 15th April. The spot price for soy oil on January 15 is Rs.400 per 10 Kgs and the April soy oil futures price on the NCDEX is Rs.415 per 10 Kgs. Unit of trading in soy oil futures is 1000 Kgs (=1 MT) and the delivery unit is 10000 Kgs (=10 MT). The producer can hedge his exposure by _____________________. [ 4 Marks ]

(a) Buying 100 units of April futures
(b) Buying 10 units of April futures
(c) Selling 100 units of April futures
(d) Selling 10 units of April futures
(e) I am not attempting this question

NCFM NSDL - DEPOSITORY OPERATIONS MODULE MOCK TEST PAPERS

NSDL - DEPOSITORY OPERATIONS MODULE

Q1
In stock lending/ borrowing process, what is the transaction fee charged by NSDL to lender's DP for moving securities from lender's account to Authorised Intermediary (AI)'s account? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 0.05% of the value of securities lent by lender to Intermediary
(b) 0.01% of the value of securities lent by lender to the Intermediary
(c) Rs. 25/- per instruction
(d) No charges
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q2
A DP who is a ______________ should provide to NSDL and SEBI, any details regarding any suspension or termination or defaults or any disputes in relation to its dealing with the clearing corporation within 2 working days. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) clearing corporation
(b) sub- broker
(c) clearing member of a clearing corporation
(d) banker of a clearing corporation
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q3
The account opening form should be signed by __________ in case of minor. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the guardian
(b) the minor
(c) both of the above
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q4
The pay-in and pay-out dates for the settlement calendar is declared [ 1 Mark ]

(a) by SEBI
(b) by NSDL
(c) as per the Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1957
(d) by the respective Stock Exchanges
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q5
The 'statement of account' forwarded to an account holder shows [ 2 Marks ]

(a) details as agreed between the account holder and NSDL
(b) details as agreed between the account holder and the DP
(c) the balance of securities lying to the credit of the account holder as on the last day and also the transactions, if any, done during the period for which the statement is issued
(d) only the balance of securities lying to the credit of the account holder as on the last day of the period for which the statement is issued
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q6
In the context of dividend distribution, what is the full form of ECS? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Extended Clearing System.
(b) Extended Credit System
(c) Electronic Credit System
(d) Electronic Clearing System
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q7
Is it mandatory for Banks, Financial Institutions, Primary Dealers and Satellite Dealers to subscribe to Commercial Paper (CPs) in Demat form only? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) No, it is not mandatory. CP's can be held in physical form with SEBI approval
(b) No, it is not mandatory. CP's can be held in physical form with RBI approval
(c) Yes, it is mandatory
(d) No, it is not mandatory. CP's can be held in physical form with NSDL approval
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q8
The interest payable on securities lent is _____ [ 2 Marks ]

(a) as per the agreement between the lender, Intermediary and NSDL
(b) as per the agreement between the DP and the lender
(c) as per the agreement between the lender and the Intermediary
(d) as per the agreement between the lender and NSDL
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9
In case of pledged balance in demat form, the corporate benefits will flow to the ____________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a) pledgee
(b) pledgor
(c) pledgor/ pledgee at the discretion of the parties concerned
(d) pledgor/ pledgee at the discretion of the Issuing Co
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q10
Which of the following Government Securities are available for demat and transfer? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) All securities issued by the Central and State Governments. DP has to merely write to NSDL G-Sec cell and complete some formalities to activate the new security in the Depository system.
(b) Only securities issued by the Central and State Governments after April 1987
(c) Only securities issued by the Central Government
(d) Only securities issued by the State Governments
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q11
As per SEBI requirements, a broker has to deliver shares to the buying investor ________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a) within 5 working days of pay-out
(b) within 36 hours of pay-out
(c) within 48 hours of pay-out
(d) within 24 hours of pay-out
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q12
A Participant can submit the claim for waiver of transaction fee charged on account of minor attaining majority, to NSDL as per the prescribed format, __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) twice a month
(b) once a month
(c) fortnightly
(d) at its option, as no frequency is decided
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q13
Mr. Gupta having beneficiary account with DP1 sells 100 shares of ABC company through broker XYZ who has his clearing member account with DP2. Broker XYZ delivers the same in demat form to the clearing corporation/ house in settlement no. 1999052. The market value of ABC company is Rs. 50/-. What are the transaction charges levied by NSDL to DP1? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 2.50 (100*50*0.05/100) i. e. 5 basis points of market value of securities debited from Mr. Gupta's account
(b) 0.50 paise (100*50*0.01/100) i. e. 1 basis point of market value of securities debited from Mr. Gupta's account
(c) Re. 1/- (100*50*0.02/100) i. e. 2 basis points of market value of securities debited from Mr. Gupta's account
(d) Rs. 6/
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q14
Which of the following fields forms a part of the Dematerialisation Request Form (DRF)? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) ISIN
(b) Market Type
(c) CM-BP-ID
(d) Settlement Number
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15
Can an investor dematerialise odd lot shares? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Yes, provided Issuer/ its R and T Agent agrees
(b) Yes, provided DP agrees
(c) Yes, always
(d) No
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16
Which of the following statements is false? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The sponsors must hold atleast 51% in the Depository company
(b) A Depository company must have a minimum networth of 500 crore
(c) Participant of a Depository can hold its equity capital.
(d) The promoters of a Depository are also known as sponsors
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q17
The function of ascertaining pay-in or pay-out of brokers who have traded on the stock exchange is performed by _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Stock brokers
(b) Stock Exchanges Forum
(c) Clearing Corporation
(d) NSDL
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q18
In the Depository environment, which of the following identity is unique to an investor? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Client Id together with the client's DP Id
(b) DP Id
(c) Client Id together with the CM-BP-Id of client's broker
(d) Client Id
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q19
The final approval for recognising an entity as a Depository Participant is granted by _____ [ 2 Marks ]

(a) NSDL's Committee for Approving Participants (CAP)
(b) SEBI
(c) Special Committee appointed by SEBI comprising NSDL, NSE, BSE, and persons of eminence from capital market and finance ministry
(d) Ministry of Finance
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q20
Mr. Gupta having beneficiary account with DP1 sells 100 shares of ABC company through broker XYZ who has his clearing member account with DP2. Broker XYZ delivers the same in demat form to the clearing corporation/ house in settlement no. 1999052. Mr. Sharma having beneficiary account with DP3 buys the same through broker PQR who has his clearing member account with DP4. Broker PQR gets credit of the same in his account with DP4 in settlement no. 1999052. The market value of ABC company is Rs. 500/-. What are the transaction charges levied by NSDL to DP4? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 25/- (100*500*0.05/100) i. e. 5 basis points of market value of securities credited to broker PQR clearing member account from clearing corporation/ house
(b) Rs. 0.5/- (100*50*0.01/100) i. e. 1 basis point of market value of securities credited to broker PQR clearing member account from clearing corporation/ house, subject to minimum Rs. 2000/- and maximum Rs. 20,000/- per quarter
(c) No charges levied
(d) Re. 1/- subject to minimum of Rs. 1000/- and maximum of Rs. 20,000/- per quarter
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q21
A client has 500 shares of ABC Ltd. in his demat account. He gives pledge creation request to his DP for 250 shares of ABC Ltd. On confirmation of this pledge creation instruction by pledgee, what will happen to the shares of ABC Ltd.? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) All 500 shares of ABC Ltd. will be credited to pledgee's account
(b) 250 shares of ABC Ltd. will be blocked in client's account
(c) All 500 shares of ABC Ltd. will be blocked in client's account
(d) 250 shares of ABC Ltd. will be credited to pledgee's account
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q22
Which of the following statements regarding pledging of securities is false? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) An Intermediary account is opened for the purpose of Pledge and Hypothecation
(b) In case of pledged balance in demat form, the corporate benefits will flow to the pledgor
(c) The credit of pledged securities remains in the account of the pledgor.
(d) For the purpose of pledging of securities, both pledgor and the pledgee must have a beneficiary account with NSDL
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q23
To dematerialise government securities, NSDL has to take prior approval of _____ [ 2 Marks ]

(a) SEBI and RBI both
(b) SEBI
(c) RBI
(d) Issuing government authority
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q24
Does NSDL provide the facility of transmission along with dematerialisation of physical securities? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) No.
(b) Yes, but only for Nifty and BSE sensex scrips, provided the deceased was holding the securities jointly with other holder(s).
(c) Yes, for all the securities available for dematerialisation with NSDL, provided the deceased was holding the securities jointly with other holder(s).
(d) Yes, always
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q25
Mr. Shah sells 500 shares of ABC Ltd. to Mr. Mehta in a "off market intra DP transfer" at Rs. 118 per share. The closing price of ABC Ltd. at the following segments at stock exchanges on the execution date of this transaction are:
AE segment of NSE: 120
Demat segment of BSE: 125
BE segment of NSE: 115
Assume that ABC Ltd. falls under the SEBI list for compulsory settlement in demat form by all categories of investors. Assuming that DP charges 0.04% off market transaction charges on purchase and levies no charges on the sale side, calculate the off market transaction charges charged by the DP to Mr. Shah? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 6
(b) Rs. 25
(c) No charges levied
(d) Rs. 10
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q26
Which of the following fields in account opening form are mandatory?
a. Bank details .
b. PAN.
c. Type of Account. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) a, b and c
(b) a only
(c) a and b only
(d) a and c only
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q27
In the International Securities Identification Number (ISIN), the first two letters stand for which of the following? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The country code.
(b) The term of the security.
(c) Name of the company
(d) The type of the security
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q28
As per the DP-Client Agreement, can a DP revise the charges levied to its clients? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Yes, with minimum 30 days notice to the client
(b) Yes, with minimum 15 days notice to the client
(c) No.
(d) Yes, without any notice to the client
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q29
What is the minimum annual transaction fees payable by a DP to NSDL? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 2.5 lakh
(b) Rs. 1 lakh
(c) Rs. 5 lakh
(d) Rs.1.5 lakh
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q30
For a Non Banking Finance Company seeking to act as a DP on behalf of others, the minimum networth required as prescribed by SEBI is _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Rs. 10 Crore
(b) Rs. 100 Lakh
(c) Rs. 50 Crore
(d) Rs. 50 Lakh
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q31
Which of the following will not be a part of the PDRF? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Account holder name
(b) ISIN
(c) Unit of measurement
(d) Name of the commodity
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q32
In an application for opening an account (for corporates/ clearing members only), which one of the following does not form a part of types of accounts? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Bank
(b) NRI-Repatriable
(c) Body Corporate
(d) Trust
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q33
A DP is an entity who is registered with SEBI ______ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) under the provisions of the SEBI (Depositories & Participants) Regulations, 1996
(b) under the provisions of the Companies Act 1956
(c) under the provisions of the Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1956
(d) under provisions of Securities and Exchange Board Of India (Self Regulatory Organizations) Regulations, 2004
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q34
A broking member registered as a partnership firm, should open its clearing member account with a DP in the _________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) name of any partner(s)
(b) name registered with SEBI
(c) name of all the partners
(d) all of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q35
Which of the following is a non-cash corporate action? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Interest Payments
(b) Dividends
(c) Rights Issue
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q36
If the unit holder opts for either or survivor basis in case of his US64 units, the demat request pertaining to them can be: [ 2 Marks ]

(a) processed through the same a/c that he has for his other holdings in demat form with a undertaking that this facility is available only for US64 units
(b) processed through a separate a/c that he opens for US64 units on either or survivor basis
(c) Any one of the above, at his option
(d) Not applicable. US64 units do not have the facility of either or survivor basis
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q37
What is the annual fee charged to a Depository Participant subscribing for IDeAS facility of NSDL? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Rs.10,000
(b) Rs. 1 crore
(c) Rs. 35,000
(d) Rs. 50 lakh
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q38
There can be maximum of _______ nominee (s) per demat account [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 5
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q39
The BSE Sensex comprises of ________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 30 scrips
(b) 25 scrips
(c) 50 scrips
(d) 35 scrips
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q40
If beneficial owner opts for demat securities in the public issue application form then, the probability of allotment of the shares _______ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Decreases
(b) increases.
(c) depends on the no. of applications he has submitted asking for demat shares
(d) remains same
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q41
In an application for opening an account (for individuals only), which one of the following does not form a part of types of accounts? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Ordinary resident
(b) HUF
(c) NRI-Non-Repatriable
(d) FII
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q42
Which scrips have to be compulsorily settled in demat form by all categories of investors with effect from January 4, 1999? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Scrips falling under the list issued by SEBI for this purpose
(b) Scrips of all public limited companies
(c) All scrips joined NSDL
(d) All listed scrips
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q43
Mr. Sharechandani, an NRI based in Singapore has purchased 1000 shares of XYZ in March 1995 on a repatriable basis. If he wishes to transfer the shares to his broker on sale, ________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) he will need to take special permission from SEBI to do so and then produce the same to DP
(b) no permission is required for NRIs. He can transfer the same freely
(c) the treaty between India and Singapore exempts Mr. Sharechandani from producing any permission
(d) he will have to produce the copy of the necessary RBI permission to his DP
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q44
In stock lending/ borrowing process, what is the transaction fees charged by NSDL to Intermediary's DP for moving securities from Intermediary's account to borrower's account? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 25/- per instruction
(b) 0.01% of the value of securities lent by Intermediary to the borrower
(c) No charges
(d) 0.05% of the value of securities lent by Intermediary to the borrower
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q45
In case of government securities sent for dematerialisation, the DP will endorse the certificates ____ [ 2 Marks ]

(a) by writing 'Surrendered for Dematerialisation' on the front of the certificate.
(b) by writing 'Tendered for Cancellation and credit to SGL A/c No. BYSL0838 of NSDL, Mumbai' on the reverse of the certificate
(c) by writing 'Surrendered for Dematerialisation' on the reverse of the certificate
(d) by writing 'Surrendered to RBI for dematerialisation' on the reverse of the certificate
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q46
Which of the following instructions from the Pledge/ Hypothecation form, should be used by a pledgor (after repayment of loan) to get the pledged shares back as free balances? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Invoke the pledge/ hypothecation
(b) Confirm the creation of pledge/ hypothecation
(c) Close the pledge/ hypothecation
(d) Create the pledge/ hypothecation
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q47
NSDL; [ 2 Marks ]

(a) has no role to play in settlement of dematerialised securities that are to be delivered in the unified (erstwhile physical) segments of connected stock exchanges
(b) facilitates settlement of both funds and dematerialised securities
(c) replaces the clearing corporation/ house of the exchange that has established electronic connectivity with it
(d) only plays the role of a facilitator in settlement of dematerialised securities in those exchanges which have established electronic connectivity with it
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q48
The Warehouse Receipts are identified by ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) CID for Warehouse Receipts
(b) WRIN
(c) PDRF
(d) ISIN for Warehouse Receipts
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q49
What is 'shut period'? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) It is the period applicable to government securities, during which RBI will not register transfer of securities
(b) It is the period during which a company shall stop registering transfer of the securities
(c) It is the period during which the Stock Exchanges will not operate
(d) It is the period when NSDL shuts it operations
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q50
As per NSDL backup policy _______ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) a DP has to take two copies of backups ; one copy has to be preserved at a remote site away from the operations and another on the site itself.
(b) a DP has to take only one copy of backup which has to be preserved at a remote site away from the operations
(c) a DP has to take only one copy of backup which has to be preserved on the site of its operations
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q51
The charges for dematerialisation of securities related services to be paid by the investors are levied by _______ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the R&T agent
(b) NSDL
(c) SEBI
(d) the Depository Participant
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q52
What are transaction charges levied by NSDL to its DP for off market transfers? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 8/- per debit instruction
(b) 2 basis points of market value of securities to the buyer
(c) 10 basis points of face value of securities to the seller
(d) Rs. 6/- per debit instruction
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q53
GDR; [ 2 Marks ]

(a) is a vehicle through which Indian Companies can raise funds domestically under SEBI's guidelines for book building
(b) is the modified CRR directive issued by RBI
(c) is used by banks for meeting SLR requirements
(d) is a financial instrument used by Indian Companies to raise funds abroad.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q54
To ascertain whether a SGL account is registered with PDO at RBI, Mumbai, which of the following shall be the prefix to the SGL account number? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) BY
(b) BO
(c) MU
(d) MUM
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q55
The Approved Intermediary for securities lending and borrowing has to be registered with _______. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) SEBI
(b) Department of Company Affairs
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) RBI
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q56
In the Depository system, when the investor has multiple Depository accounts, the method adopted by Income Tax Authorities for calculation of capital gains will be _______ [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Depository Participant wise
(b) globally, for securities held in all the accounts taken together
(c) at the discretion of the tax authorities
(d) account wise
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q57
An investor is holding 100 shares in physical form. The company issues 1:1 bonus. Can investor opt for bonus in demat form? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Yes, bonus shares are always issued in demat form irrespective of the form in which the original shares were held
(b) No, the bonus shares will be issued in physical form
(c) Cannot say. Bonus shares will be issued in such form as thought fit by the Issuer
(d) Yes, by writing to the Issuer or its Registrar & Transfer Agent giving his DP Id, Client ID & Client Name
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q58
As per SEBI's Securities Lending and Borrowing Scheme, the networth requirement for an Approved Intermediary is _________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 50 crore.
(b) 10 crore
(c) 25 crore
(d) 100 crore
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q59
The transaction statements are sent by DP to _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) NSDL for onward delivery
(b) the investor / clients directly
(c) the broker of the client/ investor
(d) None of the above as the transaction statements are sent directly by NSDL
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q60
Mr. Shah sells 500 shares of ABC Ltd. to Mr. Mehta in a "off market intra DP transfer" at Rs. 118 per share. The closing price of ABC Ltd. at the following segments at stock exchanges on the execution date of this transaction are:
AE segment of NSE: 120
Demat segment of BSE: 125
BE segment of NSE: 115
Assume that ABC Ltd. falls under the SEBI list for compulsory settlement in demat form by all categories of investors. Assuming that DP charges 0.04% off market transaction charges on purchase and levies no charges on the sale side, calculate the off market transaction charges charged by NSDL to DP? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 25
(b) Rs. 23
(c) Rs. 24
(d) Rs. 6
(e) I am not attempting the question


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NCFM SURVEILLANCE IN STOCK EXCHANGES MODULE TEST QUESTION PAPERS

SURVEILLANCE IN STOCK EXCHANGES MODULE

Q1
As per the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Rules, 1957, every member of a recognized stock exchange shall maintain and preserve the Members' contract books showing details of all contracts entered into by him or counterfoils or duplicates of memos of confirmation issued to other members for a period of _____ years. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 7
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q2
Suppose your annual savings are Rs. 30,000. You opt for pension fund that offers compounded interest rate of 10% annually. How much will your PF account have after 25 years if you are contributing your savings to the PF at the end of every year? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 32,50,412
(b) 29,50,412
(c) 2,95,041
(d) 3,25,041
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q3
SEBI Act, 1992 was enacted to establish SEBI with statutory powers for: [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Protecting the interests of investors in securities.
(b) Promoting the development of the securities market.
(c) Regulating the securities market.
(d) All of the Above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q4
What is the purpose of Market Surveillance? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) To ensure Fair and efficient market.
(b) To curb liquidity.
(c) To delist non-compliant companies.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q5
The standard deviation of 2 securities A and B are 10% and 25% and their correlation coefficient is 0.2. What is the portfolio risk, if the investment in A is 25% and in B is 75%? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 3.90%
(b) 19.41%
(c) 7.10%
(d) 1.10%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q6
The compliance officer shall immediately and independently report to SEBI about __________, under the SEBI (Stock Brokers and Sub-brokers) Regulations, 1992. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Audit observation
(b) Any non-compliance observed by him
(c) Client details
(d) Investment advice rendered by a broker
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q7
IMSS stands for ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Integrated Market Security System
(b) International Market Security Surveillance
(c) International Market Surveillance System
(d) Integrated Market Surveillance System
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q8
Derivative includes:
(A) A security derived from a debt instrument, share, loan whether secured or unsecured, risk instrument or contract for differences or any other form of security.
(B) A contract which derives its value from the prices, or index or prices, of underlying securities.
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9
When are the trading members expected to upload the Unique Client code details of F&O Clients? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Before executing the trade or latest on same day.
(b) Before the 7th working day of the month following the day of trade.
(c) Before the 7th day of the month following the day of trade.
(d) None of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q10
A trading member has two clients with the following MTM positions.

Client
Security X
Security Y
Security Z

T-1 Day
T Day
T-1 Day
T Day
T-1 Day
T Day

A
-500
-1200
-1500
-800
1000
500

B
-1000
-500
-1800
-1300
500
300


The MTM for the trading member will be _________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) -6300
(b) -3300
(c) -3000
(d) 300
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q11
Book building is a process of __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) A company raising capital without diluting stake of its existing shareholders
(b) Offering securities to public for subscription for the purpose of raising capital or fund.
(c) Offering company's shares to a select set of people
(d) Offering securities in which bids at various prices from investors through syndicate
members are collected
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q12
Which of the following is NOT true about SEBI? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) It can specify the matters to be disclosed and the standards of disclosure required for the protection of investors in respect of issues.
(b) Its regulatory jurisdiction extends over corporate in the issuance of capital and transfer of securities.
(c) It determines the premium/discounts at which securities are to be issued.
(d) Its regulatory jurisdiction extends over all intermediaries and persons associated with the securities market.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q13
What is the present value of Rs. 6000 receivable after two years at a discount rate of 5% under continuous discounting? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 5700
(b) Rs. 5429.02
(c) Rs. 6000
(d) Rs. 6300
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q14
Which of the following is NOT price sensitive information? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Investors' education and training of intermediaries of securities markets.
(b) Major expansion plans or execution of new projects.
(c) Disposal of the whole or substantial part of the undertaking.
(d) Published periodical financial results of the company.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15
A trading member has four clients with the following positions.

Client
Security
Settlement
Buy Value
Sell Value

Client A
Security W
2005001
1129
1153


Security Z
2005004
977
2014

Client B
Security W
2005001
978
1771


Security X
2005002
2069
3695


Security Y
2005003
1601
2079


Security Z
2005004
5365
1000

Client C
Security X
2005001
1339
2069

Client D
Security W
2005001
1260
3702


Security Y
2005003
1259
3392


Security Z
2005004
2493
470


The Gross open positions for the member in W, X, Y and Z will be ________respectively. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 3259; 2356; 2611; 7425
(b) -6734; -6816; -5720; -4894
(c) -3259; -2356; -2611; -7425
(d) 9993; 9172; 8331; 12319
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16
Under which of the following conditions, can SEBI reject issuance of registration certificate to a stock-broker? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) If the stock broker does not have any past experience in the business of buying, selling or dealing in securities.
(b) If the stock broker is not a fit and proper person.
(c) If the stock broker does not have the necessary infrastructure to effectively discharge his activities.
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q17
Security A gives a return of 12% with a dispersion of 4%, while security B gives return of 15% with a dispersion of 5%. Which security is more risky? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Security B
(b) Both securities are equally risky
(c) Neither of the securities is risky
(d) Security A
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q18
Calculate Beta of security-X, given the Covariance between return on Security-X and the return on Market portfolio as 67 and the Variance of return on the market portfolio as 108.5. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 0.62
(b) 0.63
(c) 1.62
(d) 0.72
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q19
What is the correct fine structure for delay in uploading UCI details for F&O client? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs.100 per client code subject to a minimum of Rs.1000 per week.
(b) Rs.100 per client code subject to a minimum of Rs.100 per week.
(c) Rs.10 per client code per day subject to Rs.100 per week
(d) Rs.1000 per client code per day of delay
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q20
A trading member has three clients with the following positions.

Client
Security
Settlement
Buy Value
Sell Value

Client A
Security W
2005001
550
250


Security Z
2005004
750
950

Client B
Security X
2005002
875
625


Security Y
2005003
595
335

Client C
Security Y
2005003
100
565


Security Z
2005004
795
20


The Gross open positions for the member in W, X, Y and Z will be________respectively. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 800; 1500; 1595; 2695
(b) -500; -1250; -870; -1900
(c) 300; 250; 725; 795
(d) -300; -250; -725; -795
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q21
From the following information of a firm, determine earnings per share:
Net profit available to equity holders = Rs.50 lakh
Equity share capital = Rs.10 lakh
Face value of an equity share = Rs. 10 [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Rs.5.00
(b) Rs.50.00
(c) Rs.10.00
(d) Rs.2.00
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q22
China Valley Pvt. Ltd. a Group I security, the scrip-wise daily VaR would be _____ times the volatility of the scrip, subject to a minimum of _____%. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 3; 7
(b) 7; 3.5
(c) 3.5; 7.5
(d) 7.5; 3.5
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q23
Trade details for a security trading under the band of 10% are as follows, High price=55, Low price=45.45, Previous Close=50, Close price=55. Which of the following type of price band(s) it has touched during the trading day? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Upper band
(b) Lower Band
(c) Upper band as well as lower band
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q24
Price to Earnings Ratio is given by __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Face value of share / Dividend per share.
(b) Face value of share / Earning per share.
(c) Market value of share / Dividend per share.
(d) Market price of a share / Earning per share.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q25
Suppose the index based circuit breaker was triggered at 2000 points, then its second circuit breaker will reach at ________. (Previous day close of nifty was 1800) [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 2070
(b) 2100
(c) 2200
(d) 2530
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q26
As per the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Rules, 1957, every member of a recognized stock exchange shall maintain and preserve the counterfoils or duplicates of contract notes issued to clients for a period of _____ years. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 1
(b) 7
(c) 2
(d) 5
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q27
While evaluating a project, a project should be accepted if _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The benefit cost ratio is zero
(b) The net present value of the project is zero
(c) The net present value of the project is positive
(d) The benefit cost ratio is less than one
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q28
Securities which have traded for less than 80% of the days and having Impact Cost more than 1 shall be categorized in VaR Group _____. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) III
(b) I
(c) II
(d) No Group
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q29
Which of the following is not a case of market abuse? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Trading on the basis of published corporate information.
(b) Dissemination of false or misleading market information through rumors.
(c) Front running.
(d) Trading on the basis of un-published price sensitive information.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q30
What price band is applicable for scrips trading in the derivatives segment? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) No band
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 5%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q31
Register of transactions (Sauda Book) shall be preserved for a period of _____ years by the stock broker as per the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Rules, 1957. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 10
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q32
Stock price of XYZ Ltd. is trading at Rs.115. The firm is expected to declare dividend of Rs.3.5 per share and is expected to grow at rate of 12.5 per cent per year. What is the cost of equity under dividend growth model? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 12.50%
(b) 17.50%
(c) 3.20%
(d) 15.50%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q33
Marketwide circuit breakers are applied _____________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) To provide for a cooling-off period giving buyers and sellers time to assimilate information
(b) To avoid the prices of securities from falling further
(c) To allow buyers and sellers to take stock of the losses made by them
(d) To avoid the prices of securities from rising further
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q34
For a Client trading in F&O segment, the trading member is compulsorily required to upload which of the following details of the client? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Ration Card
(b) Voter id
(c) MAPIN
(d) PAN
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q35
Assume security A with a beta of 1.1 is being considered at a time when risk free rate of return is 5% and market return is expected to be 14%. What is the required rate of return according to Capital Asset Pricing Model? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 14.9
(b) 16.9
(c) 18.9
(d) 21.9
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q36
In case of 75% book building option adopted by an issuer company which of the following holds good? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Not less than 10% of the net offer to the public should be available for allocation to non
Qualified Institutional Buyers and not more than 50% of net offer to the public should be
available for allocation to Qualified Institutional Buyers.
(b) Not less than 25% of the net offer to the public should be available for allocation to non
Qualified Institutional Buyers and not more than 50% of net offer to the public should be
available for allocation to Qualified Institutional Buyers.
(c) Not less than 25% of the net offer to the public should be available for allocation to Qualified
Institutional Buyers and not more than 50% of net offer to the public should be available for
allocation to non Qualified Institutional Buyers.
(d) Not less than 50% of the net offer to the public should be available for allocation to non
Qualified Institutional Buyers and not more than 75% of net offer to the public should be
available for allocation to Qualified Institutional Buyers.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q37
'Documents register showing full particulars of shares and securities received and delivered' shall be preserved for a period of _____ years by the stock broker as per the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Rules, 1957. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 5
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q38
Every recognized stock exchange furnishes a copy of the annual report, as per the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 to ______________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(b) Registrar of Companies
(c) Securities Appellate Tribunal
(d) Company Law Board
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q39
Which of the following is NOT included in the code of conduct for stock-broker holding a certificate? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Exercise of Due Skill and Care.
(b) Integrity in conduct of business.
(c) Manipulative transactions.
(d) Advertisement and Publicity.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q40
MS Pvt. Ltd. Group III scrip has a scrip VaR of 9 and the Index VaR is 7. The VaR rate applicable for the scrip would be____%. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 67.66
(b) 60.62
(c) 54.56
(d) 77.65
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q41
A trading member has two clients with the following positions.

Client
Security
Settlement
Buy Value
Sell Value

Client A
Security W
2005001
9883
9683


Security X
2005002
9319
1169


Security Y
2005003
1117
1078


Security Z
2005004
1082
1528

Client B
Security W
2005001
1528
1406


Security X
2005002
1410
1380


Security Y
2005003
1471
1473


Security Z
2005004
1395
1271


The Gross open positions for the member in W, X, Y and Z will be ________ respectively. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 22500; 13278; 5139; 5276
(b) -22178; -5098; 5098; -4706
(c) 322; 8180; 41; 570
(d) -322; -8180; -41; -570
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q42
Following is accepted towards cash component of members additional capital: [ 2 Marks ]

(a) NSC certificates
(b) Equity mutual funds
(c) Government securities
(d) Gold
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q43
A trading member has two clients with the following positions.

Client
Security
Settlement
Buy Value
Sell Value

Client A
Security W
2005001
1000
1100


Security X
2005002
3000
2550

Client B
Security W
2005001
900
1100


Security X
2005002
6000
6500


The Gross open positions for the member in W and X will be ________respectively. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 300; 950
(b) -300; -950
(c) 4100; 18050
(d) -3800; -18000
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q44
What is the average cost of capital of XYZ Ltd.? If the cost of capital from each source such as debt, preferred stock and equity is 8%, 18% and 30% respectively and being financed with 30% from debt, 30% from preferred stock and 40% from the equity. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 17%
(b) 18.40%
(c) 19.80%
(d) 22%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q45
Which of the following is NOT the function of Securities Appellate Tribunal? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Receiving evidence on affidavits.
(b) Calling for information from intermediaries and self-regulatory organizations in the
securities market.
(c) Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on oath.
(d) Dismissing an application for default.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q46
The stock returns of the Company ABC Ltd. for past 5 years are 5%, 10%, 25%, 45%, and 40%. What is the standard Deviation of the returns for the Company ABC Ltd.? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Insufficient data to calculate Std Deviation
(b) 250
(c) 35.36
(d) 15.81
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q47
A security in Trade for Trade segment must be settled on ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) At the discretion of the clearing corporation
(b) Net Basis
(c) Gross basis
(d) At the discretion of the clearing member
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q48
The index based circuit filters are applicable at the following stages of index movement: [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 5%, 10%, 20%
(b) 10%, 20%, 30%
(c) 10%, 15%, 20%
(d) 2%,5%,10%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q49
Alerts for the Preliminary analysis and Investigation process are received from _________.
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) The surveillance group.
(b) Regulatory bodies.
(c) Investors/members.
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q50
Which VaR group securities are accepted as collaterals by NSCCL? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Group I
(b) Group II
(c) Group III
(d) All Group
(e) I am not attempting the question

FIMMDA-NSE DEBT MARKET (BASIC) MODULE TEST PAPERS

FIMMDA-NSE DEBT MARKET (BASIC) MODULE

Q1
Which of the following statements is TRUE about daily volumes in the call money market? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) These volumes are usually lower than the volumes in the repo markets.
(b) These volumes are comparable with volumes in the ICD and CP markets.
(c) They register the largest transaction value after government securities.
(d) Call money markets record the highest daily transaction value amongst all segments of debt markets.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q2
How are the market borrowings of state governments managed? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Bonds are privately placed with PDs.
(b) Bonds are issued by the state governments.
(c) Bonds are issued by the RBI as well as the respective state governments.
(d) Bonds are issued by the RBI.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q3
Which of the following is NOT a credit enhancement mechanism for asset backed securities? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Creation of an escrow account for repayment by principal borrowers with rights to the investor.
(b) Cherry-picking of the asset portfolio of the originator.
(c) Guarantees from loan originators in the event of default.
(d) Enabling the servicing of payments through the originator.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q4
If a trade is cancelled, the counter party limit in the WDM segment of NSE is _____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) not changed during the trading day
(b) automatically restored when trades are cancelled
(c) restored only after the counterparties notify the exchange of the same
(d) restored only when transactions are settled
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q5
Which segment of the debt markets has highest market capitalisation? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Call money markets
(b) Government bonds
(c) PSU bonds
(d) Corporate bonds
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q6
To arrive at the average MIBOR/MIBID rates, NSE uses _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) weighted trimmed mean adjusted for standard deviation
(b) simple mean trimmed arrived at by bootstrapping
(c) simple trimmed mean
(d) adaptive trimmed mean
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q7
If the yield changes by 15 basis points, the value of the portfolio (given in the following table) can be expected to change by _________.

Coupon(%pa)
Maturity Date
Price(Rs) as on June 8,2001
No. of Bonds

11.83
November 12, 2014
113.65
116600

10.47
February 12, 2015
105.35
114100

11.43
April 7, 2015
111.45
113600

10.71
April 18, 2016
106.75
112400

10.45
April 27, 2018
104.78
111100



[ 4 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 678816.90
(b) Rs. 680916.90
(c) Rs. 677616.90
(d) Rs. 678866.90
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q8
The repo auction conducted by the RBI on a daily basis is known as _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) money market intervention
(b) open market operations
(c) liquidity adjustment facility
(d) tri-partite repos
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q9
The company sends the debenture certificate/ credits the depository account in case of all allottees in a corporate debenture issue within _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 30 days from the date of closure of the issue
(b) 3 months from the closure of the issue
(c) 30 days from the deemed date of allotment
(d) 3 months from the deemed date of allotment
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q10
Which of the following factors does NOT directly affect call rates? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Capital inflows and exchange rate situation
(b) Outcome of treasury bill auctions
(c) Rates of growth in bank deposits
(d) Seasonal fluctuations in credit off take
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q11
Which of the following is FALSE? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) FIIs cannot invest more than 30% of their funds in Dated Government Securities and Treasury Bills.
(b) RBI cannot buy or sell securities in the secondary markets.
(c) PDs cannot issue CPs.
(d) Provident funds cannot invest in call money markets.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q12
If the YTMs of 2 bonds with tenors of 4.850 years and 7.842 years are 8.9202% and 9.1699% respectively, what is the YTM (%) of a bond with a tenor of 5.748 years? (Hint: Use linear interpolation). [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 9.0251
(b) 8.9951
(c) 8.9551
(d) 9.1451
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q13
If interest rates fall, which of the following will hold good? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The total return to the investor will change depending on the investor's investment horizon.
(b) The total return to the investor will increase because there would be capital gains on the bond.
(c) The total return to the investor will decrease because reinvestment income will become lower.
(d) The total return to the investor will remain unchanged as long as coupons are not defaulting and are the largest component of total return.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q14
What is the maximum brokerage that can be charged by an NSE trading member for a deal in government securities for Rs. 20 million? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 30,000
(b) Rs. 22,000
(c) Rs. 20,000
(d) Rs. 25,000
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q15
In the case of securities held in SGL form, which of the following statements is FALSE? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The transferor is deemed to be the holder of the security, until the transferee is registered by the PDO.
(b) Transfer is effected using RBI prescribed instruments of transfer.
(c) The transfer can be for whole or part of the stock of securities.
(d) Transfers are effected by execution of the SGL form III by the seller of the securities.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q16
Which of the following statements is FALSE? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Non-competitive bids are always deducted from the notified amount of Treasury Bills auction.
(b) Non-competitive bids are allotted at the weighted average price of winning bids.
(c) Provident funds can submit non-competitive bids at treasury auctions.
(d) FIIs can submit non-competitive bids in treasury auctions.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q17
If the NSE-ZCYC interest rate for 10.5095 years is 9.6150%, what is the discounted value of Rs.100 receivable at the end of that period? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 36.42413
(b) Rs. 36.33913
(c) Rs. 36.40411
(d) Rs. 36.32913
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q18
The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. will settle transactions in ____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) long term government debt
(b) money and Forex markets
(c) money, government securities and Forex markets
(d) money market instruments and government securities
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q19
How is a bond marked to market using a simple yield curve? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The YTM that corresponds with the duration of the bond is used to value the cash flows of the bond.
(b) The YTM that corresponds with the average tenor of the cash flows of the bond are used to value the bond.
(c) The YTM that corresponds with the tenor of the bond is used to value the cash flows of the bond.
(d) The rates that correspond to each cash flow of the bond are read from the yield curve, and used to value the bond.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q20
Duration of the bond index is computed as _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) duration of all bonds included in the index, weighted by the number of each bond held
(b) simple average of the duration of all bonds included in the index
(c) market capitalisation weighted duration of all bonds in the index
(d) price-weighted duration of all bonds included in the index
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q21
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the NSE MIBOR polling process? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) NSE disseminates information about the rates and participants, but not the amount associated with each quote.
(b) NSE does not reveal the identity of the participants, but discloses the rates of each participant.
(c) NSE keeps both participant identity and polled rate confidential.
(d) NSE disseminates information on rates quoted by each participant and the amounts associated with those rates.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q22
A 13.82% GOI security maturing on 30-May-2002 is trading at a YTM of 6.9545% on 10-Jul-2001. The price of the security is ______. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs 105.82
(b) Rs 105.80
(c) Rs 105.78
(d) Rs 105.83
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q23
A CP maturing on September 26, 2001 was issued on June 28, 2001 at a price of Rs.97.05. What is the cut-off yield (%)? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 12.1276
(b) 12.8276
(c) 12.5276
(d) 12.3276
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q24
A 10.25% GOI security, maturing on 29-May-2021 is trading on 2-Jul-2001 at a YTM of 9.8944%. How much interest has accrued on the security? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 0.9396
(b) Rs. 0.9344
(c) Rs. 0.9448
(d) Rs. 0.9293
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q25
When can a company withdraw funds from the debenture redemption reserve account? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The redemption reserve is equal to the redemption amount.
(b) At least 50% of the debentures outstanding have been redeemed.
(c) Companies cannot withdraw funds from the debenture redemption reserve account.
(d) At least 10% of the debentures outstanding have been redeemed.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q26
Which of the following statements is FALSE? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The lower the YTM of a bond, the lower its duration.
(b) The higher the YTM of a bond, the lower its duration.
(c) The higher the tenor of a bond, the higher its duration.
(d) The lower the coupon of a bond, the higher its duration.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q27
Which of the following about the relationship between price and yield is FALSE? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The relationship between prices and yields is non-linear.
(b) Rise in bond prices for a fall in yields is mostly steeper than fall in bond prices for a rise in yields.
(c) Prices and yields of a bond are inversely related.
(d) The fall in bond yields for a rise in price is lower than the rise in bond yields for a fall in price.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q28
PV01 of a bond represents ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the percentage change in value of the bond, for a 1bp change in yield
(b) the change in rupee value of the bond for a 1bp change in yield
(c) the change in duration of the bond for a 1 basis point change in yield
(d) the change in modified duration of the bond for a 1 basis point change in yield
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q29
In order for a mutual fund scheme to be listed for trading on the WDM segment of NSE, ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the scheme should invest atleast 50% of NAV in debt instruments
(b) the scheme has to publish daily NAVs
(c) the investment objective of the scheme should be to invest pre-dominantly in debt securities.
(d) the scheme has to be held by atleast 50 investors
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q30
The following are the parameters of the NSE-ZCYC.
beta0 = 11.1462
beta1 = (-)2.0187
beta2 = (-)8.9666
tau = 1.3540
What is the interest rate (%) corresponding to a tenor of 0.4986 years, using the above ZCYC?
[ 3 Marks ]

(a) 8.1649
(b) 8.1839
(c) 8.1610
(d) 8.1189
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q31
Which of the following statements about the ZCYC is TRUE? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The ZCYC estimates the yield associated with bonds whose duration is equal to the tenor of a corresponding zero coupon bond.
(b) The ZCYC cannot be estimated in market where only coupon paying bonds are traded.
(c) The ZCYC is the estimated theoretical spot rate curve underlying coupon-paying bonds.
(d) The ZCYC is the YTM of all traded zero coupon bonds in the market.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q32
Which of the following about mandates to debt market brokers is FALSE? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Mandates are usually valid for 15 minutes, unless otherwise specified.
(b) If the counter-party is firm to the deal at the mandate price, the broker shall reveal the name of the party offering the mandate.
(c) Mandates cannot be renewed at the same terms after expiry of the validity period.
(d) Brokers have to check for the currency of the mandate from time to time after the initial validity period expires.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q33
The following bids are received in a treasury bond auction. The notified amount is Rs. 20,000 million. No amount devolves on the RBI/PDs.

No. of Bonds
Price (Rs.)

39 million
110.2025

40 million
110.2000

41 million
110.1975

42 million
110.1950

43 million
110.1925

44 million
110.1900

45 million
110.1875

46 million
110.1850



What is the cut-off price in the auction? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 110.1900
(b) Rs. 110.1950
(c) Rs. 110.1925
(d) Rs. 110.1875
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q34
Which of the following statements is TRUE? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) A Daily market- to- market based margin has to be paid on FRA's
(b) FRA's are OTC contracts
(c) FRA's cannot be cash-settled
(d) Swaps are traded on an exchange
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q35
Primary dealers are NOT directly involved in _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) creating an effective conduit for open market operations
(b) enabling wider holding of government securities
(c) extending market support to retail investors in debt market
(d) underwriting and market making in government securities
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q36
On value date 27/07/2001, the term to maturity of a GOI bond maturing on 28/07/2006 is _____ year. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 5.075
(b) 5.003
(c) 5.002
(d) 5.005
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q37
Which of the following is a NOT a use of interest rate derivatives? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) They can be used to avail of arbitrage opportunities that may exist in the market.
(b) They can be used to speculate on future interest rates.
(c) They can be used to separate funding/ liquidity decisions from interest rate sensitivity decisions.
(d) They can be used to hedge credit risk.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q38
An investing institution has paid some amount as application money in a privately placed corporate debenture issue. They will receive interest on the application money at ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) money market rates until the deemed date of allotment
(b) 15%
(c) the coupon rate applicable to the debenture for the period until the deemed date of allotment
(d) the MIBOR rate for the period until the deemed date of allotment
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q39
A 11.43% GOI security, maturing on 7-Apr-2015, trades on 28-Feb-2001. The next coupon payment is due on _______. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 04-Apr-2001
(b) 06-Apr-2001
(c) 05-Apr-2001
(d) 07-Apr-2001
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q40
SEBI does NOT regulate _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) debentures issues by PSUs
(b) corporate debentures with less than 18 months to maturity
(c) Commercial Paper and Certificate of Deposit
(d) public issue of floating rate debentures
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q41
Which of the following statements is TRUE? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) State Government funding for fiscal deficit can only be done through market borrowings.
(b) State Government funding for fiscal deficit can only be done through loans from Central Government
(c) State Government funding for fiscal deficit through loans from the Central Government has fallen over the years
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q42
What is the PV01 of the following holding?
Coupon rate: 10.47%
Maturity date: 12-Feb-2015
YTM: 9.6524%
Settlement date: 7-Jul-2001
Size of holding: 2250 G-secs
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 169.1489
(b) Rs. 169.1316
(c) Rs. 169.0767
(d) Rs. 169.1554
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q43
SBI enters into the following repo transaction:
Security: 11.99% GOI security maturing on 7-Apr-2009
Days in the repo period: 4
Settlement date: 13-Oct-2001
Face value of the transaction: Rs. 3,550,000
Market Price of the security: Rs. 116.25
Repo rate: 7.75%
How much does SBI pay on the second leg of the transaction?
[ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 4,123,055
(b) Rs. 4,161,755
(c) Rs. 4,173,755
(d) Rs. 4,137,480
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q44
Which of the following statements about CP issuance is FALSE? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) CPs cannot be rolled over.
(b) The issuing and paying agent will have to be a scheduled bank.
(c) CP issues cannot be underwritten.
(d) CPs cannot be issued by primary dealers.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q45
Settlement date for a repo transaction on the WDM segment of NSE is after specified number of _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) calendar days for the ready and forward legs of the transaction
(b) calendar days for the ready leg and working days for the forward leg of the transaction
(c) Working days for the ready leg and calendar days for the forward leg of the transaction
(d) Working days for the ready and forward legs of the transaction
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q46
Which of the following statements is TRUE for a normal overnight-indexed interest rate swap? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The fixed leg gets compounded daily.
(b) The floating leg gets compounded daily at the overnight rate.
(c) Floating rate can be set weekly.
(d) The exchange of interest payments has to take place daily.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q47
Consider a 6 month OIS:
Notional Principal = Rs. 200
Fixed Rate = 7.5%
Floating Rate = NSE Overnight MIBOR
Under the structure of the swap, the Fixed Rate is a nominal rate
MIBOR is compounded daily (on holidays, the previous MIBOR is taken)
Consider 182 days in the period of the swap, 365 days in a year
MIBOR remains constant for the entire period at 6.90%
What is the amount to be exchanged at the end?
[ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 0.479
(b) Rs. 0.858
(c) Rs. 0.191
(d) Rs. 0.600
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q48
Which of the following is FALSE? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The company has to file the details of the charge with the Registrar of Companies.
(b) A charge can be enforced only if it is registered with the Registrar of the Companies.
(c) If no charge is created, such borrowings will be treated as "deposits" under Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 1975.
(d) No charge is required to be created for debentures with maturity less than 18 months.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q49
The average trade size at NSE-WDM segment is approximately Rs. ___ crore. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 2
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q50
How are the securities, used as collateral in a repo transaction, valued? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The value of the collateral is the clean price of the security, adjusted for a 'haircut.'
(b) The value of the collateral is calculated by discounting the cash flows at the YTM of a comparable bond.
(c) The value of the collateral is equal to the market value of the securities.
(d) The value of the collateral is the dirty price of the security, less margin.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q51
You have sold the following GOI bond:
Coupon Rate: 11.68%
Maturity Date: April 10, 2006
Settlement Date: October 9, 2001
Price: Rs. 115.7625
Transaction amount: Rs. 97,700,000
How much do you receive on settlement?
[ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 118,798,944
(b) Rs. 118,783,944
(c) Rs. 118,748,944
(d) Rs. 118,773,944
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q52
A treasury bill maturing on 30-Jul-2001 has a market price of Rs. 99.4881 on 3-Jul-2001. What is the discount rate (%) inherent in this price? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 7.2057
(b) 6.9557
(c) 7.0557
(d) 6.7057
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q53
A dealer purchased on April 12, 2000 a 11.50% GOI bond maturing on 24-Nov-2011 for Rs. 115.03. He held it for 1 year, and sold it on 11-April-2001 for Rs. 110.78. He reinvested the coupons received during the holding period (first coupon @8.1355% and the second coupon @6.6475%). What is the realised yield (%) from the investment? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 7.1360
(b) 6.7871
(c) 6.4860
(d) 7.0860
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q54
What is the duration (years) of the following GOI bond:
Coupon rate: 12.50%
Maturity date: 23-Mar-2004
YTM: 7.8384%
Settlement date: 10-Jul-2001
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) 2.321
(b) 2.295
(c) 2.329
(d) 2.324
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q55
The following bids are received in a treasury bond auction. The notified amount is Rs. 20,000 million. No amount devolves on the RBI/PDs.

No. of Bonds
Price (Rs.)

39 million
110.2025

40 million
110.2000

41 million
110.1975

42 million
110.1950

43 million
110.1925

44 million
110.1900

45 million
110.1875

46 million
110.1850



At what price will non-competitive bidders receive allotments? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 110.1980
(b) Rs. 110.1938
(c) Rs. 110.1925
(d) Rs. 110.1975
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q56
Who are currently the largest holders of T-bills? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Banks
(b) Provident Funds
(c) Mutual Funds
(d) Primary Dealers
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q57
In relation to documentation of a deal in the debt markets, which of the following statements is FALSE? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Documentation is evidence of the deal, and should not override the terms agreed upon orally.
(b) A dealer cannot, under any circumstance, specify that a deal is subject to documentation.
(c) A market transaction is usually confirmed orally, and the practice is not to finalise a deal subject to documentation.
(d) Making a transaction subject to documentation is not considered good market practice.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q58
_______ of outright transactions in G-secs is reported on the WDM segment of NSE. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Almost 90%
(b) Over 80%
(c) About 65%
(d) Less than 50%
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q59
Which one of the following conditions an offsetting swap, for a normal fixed-floating interest rate swap, does not have to satisfy? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Floating leg benchmark should be the same.
(b) Notional Principal should be the same.
(c) Fixed Rate has to be the same.
(d) Interest exchange dates have to be the same.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q60
A trading member on the WDM segment of NSE sets up a counter party limit of Rs. 350 lakh against counter-party and utilises Rs. 300 lakh on a given day which is still outstanding in current asset limit. The next day, he modifies the CP limit to Rs. 250 lakh. Which of the following will hold good? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The counterparty has to be notified about the reduction in the CP limit.
(b) The CP limits cannot be modified to a level lower than amounts in current asset limit.
(c) The earlier transaction will remain in the system as utilised CP limit until those trades are settled; the new CP limit will apply for fresh trades.
(d) The new CP limit will result in the counterparty cancelling or reversing that amount of transaction that exceeds the new CP limit.
(e) I am not attempting this question

NCFM 4. SECURITIES MARKET (BASIC) MODULE MOCK TEST PAPERS

SECURITIES MARKET (BASIC) MODULE

Q1
1.What is the outstanding position on which initial margin will be calculated if Mr. Madanlal buys 800 units @Rs.1060 and sells 450 units @Rs.1055? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 800 units
(b) 1250 units
(c) 450 units
(d) 350 units
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q2
Which of the following does NOT invite penalty points? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) non-payment of funds obligation
(b) short delivery
(c) inadequate stamp duty on transfer deed
(d) bad delivery
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q3
Who issues the registration to a Mutual Fund in India? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Only RBI
(b) RBI for all types of Mutual Funds and additional permission from SEBI in case of a Mutual Fund being a subsidiary of a bank
(c) Only SEBI
(d) SEBI for all types of Mutual Funds and additional permission from RBI in case of a Mutual Fund being a subsidiary of a bank
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q4
In index/stock futures trading, profits are received or losses are paid ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) in the delivery month
(b) on a weekly settlement basis
(c) on daily settlement
(d) on the day of expiry of the contract
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q5
Derivative includes:
A. a security derived from a debt instrument, share, loan whether secured or unsecured, risk instrument or contract for differences or any other form of security.
B. a contract which derives its value from the prices, or index or prices, of underlying securities. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) only A
(b) only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q6
The _________issued by SEBI aim to secure fuller disclosure of the relevant information about the issuer and the nature of issue so that the investors can take informed decision [ 1 Mark ]

(a) SEBI (Stock Brokers and Sub brokers) Rules
(b) SC(R)A
(c) Disclosure and Investor Protection Guidelines
(d) SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Relating to Securities Markets) regulations
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q7
If the company pays dividend of Rs.10 every year and the expected return for the investor is 8%, what is the theoretical value of the share of the company for a period of one year, if the par value of the share is Rs.80? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 80
(b) 83.334
(c) 84.07
(d) 89.259
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q8
A trading member has the following position in a particular security TELCO:

Client
Buy Quantity
Sell Quantity

A
5200
1000

B
3000
500

C
2000
5600

D
0
4800

E
3400
0



What will be the final settlement obligation in TELCO for the member? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Pay-in obligation for 13600 shares
(b) Pay-in obligation of 1700 shares
(c) Pay-in obligation for 800 shares
(d) Pay-out obligation of 1700 shares
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q9
The difference between primary markets and secondary markets is __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Corporates raise resources directly from the investors through the primary market, whereas in the secondary markets, investors buy and sell securities to one another
(b) Primary markets deal in shares whereas secondary markets in debentures
(c) Primary markets are legal whereas secondary markets are not
(d) The initial public issues are made in primary market whereas all subsequent issues are made in the secondary markets
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q10
Which of the following is not a speculative transaction? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) a contract in respect of stocks and shares entered into by a dealer or investor therein to guard against loss in his holdings of stocks and shares through price fluctuations
(b) a contract entered into by a member of a forward market or a stock exchange in the course of any transaction in the nature of jobbing or arbitrage to guard against loss arising in ordinary course of business
(c) a contract entered into by a person to guard against loss through future price fluctuations in respect of his contracts for actual delivery of goods manufactured by him or merchandise sold by him
(d) none of the above is speculative transactions
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q11
Assume security A with a beta of 1.1 is being considered at a time when risk free rate of return is 5% and market return is expected to be 14%. What is the required rate of return according to Capital Asset Pricing Model? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 18.9
(b) 21.9
(c) 14.9
(d) 16.9
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q12
Which one of the following is NOT an immediate measure taken by NSCCL in case a member fails to meet any obligation? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Squares up open positions.
(b) Reduces exposure limits.
(c) Uses trade guarantee fund to discharge his obligations.
(d) Disables trading terminal until member's obligations are fully discharged.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q13
Stock price of XYZ Ltd. is trading at Rs.60. The firm is expected to declare dividend of Rs.6 per share and is expected to grow at rate of 12per cent per year. What is the cost of equity under dividend growth model? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 22%
(b) 20%
(c) 18%
(d) 12%
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q14
S&P CNX Nifty includes _______most liquid stocks that trade on NSEIL. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 50
(b) 30
(c) 500
(d) 100
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q15
Register of transactions (Sauda Book) shall be preserved for a period of ___ years by the stock broker as per the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Rules, 1957. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 7
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 10
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q16
An order which is activated when a price crosses a limit is _________ in F&O segment of NSEIL. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Market order
(b) Fill or kill order
(c) Stop loss order
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q17
Auction is held in Reliance for 10,000 shares.
The closing price of Reliance on that day was Rs.146.00
The last traded price of Reliance on that day was Rs.141.00
The close price of Reliance last Friday was Rs.142.00
The previous day's close price of Reliance was Rs.151.00
What is the maximum allowable price at which the member can put a sell order in the auction for Reliance? (Price band applicable for Auction market is +/-15%) [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 167.90
(b) Rs. 173.65
(c) Rs. 162.15
(d) Rs. 163.30
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q18
What is the current yield if a 11.50% bond sells in the market for Rs.125? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 9.2
(b) 9.15
(c) 9.25
(d) 9
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q19
On May 20, 2003, SATYAM COMP closed at Rs. 224, while the June futures contract on SATYAM COMP closed at Rs. 226.4. On May 21, 2003, SATYAM COMP closed at Rs. 227 and the June futures contract on SATYAM COMP closed at Rs. 228.70. Santosh is long 2 contracts of SATYAM COMP (minimum lot size per contract of SATYAM COMP is 1000). What is the profit / loss made by Santosh on his position on May 21, 2003? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Loss of Rs. 4,600
(b) Profit of Rs. 6,000
(c) Profit of Rs. 4,600
(d) Loss of Rs. 6,000
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q20
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding B2B portals? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The 'debtonnetindia' is a B2B web-enabled market place for primary issuance of debt securities and provides investors and brokers similar levels of efficiency and transparency on the primary market segment.
(b) The B2B portal 'debtonnetindia', provides both secondary and primary market platform.
(c) TheB2B portal 'riskexpress' provides both secondary and primary market platform.
(d) Two B2B portals, namely 'debtonnetindia' and 'riskexpress' provide a secure, anonymous, neutral and flexible transactional platform for issue and trading of fixed income instruments.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q21
What is the average rate of return if the returns during the previous three years are 10%, 25% and 42%? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 21%
(b) 25.67%
(c) 2.57%
(d) 15.40%
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q22
In which market does Buyer & seller not know each other? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Continuous Market
(b) Negotiated Market
(c) Continuous as well as negotiated
(d) None of the Above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q23
Which of the following is not the main objective of SEBI? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Protecting the interest of investors in securities market
(b) Regulating the securities market
(c) Promoting and developing Forex Market in India.
(d) Promoting the development of securities market
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q24
________ is also known as profitability index which measures the present value of the returns per rupee invested. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Accounting Rate of Return
(b) Internal Rate of Return
(c) Net Present Value
(d) Benefit-Cost Ratio
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q25
Calculate the value 5 years hence of a deposit of Rs. 1,000 made today if the interest rate is 7% (compounded annually). [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs.1,403
(b) Rs.1,350
(c) Rs.1,000
(d) Rs.1,035
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q26
The branch manager can view all the order details for _______ in the 'Outstanding Orders' screen in the NEAT system.
(A) a specific dealer under his own branch
(B) all dealers under his own branch
(C) the whole broking firm [ 1 Mark ]

(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (A) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (B) and (C) only
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q27
Total Margin levied on a member in respect of options contracts comprises of _____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Initial Margin + Premium Margin - Assignment Margin
(b) Initial Margin + Mark to Market Settlement
(c) Initial Margin + Premium Margin
(d) Initial Margin + Premium Margin + Assignment Margin
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q28
Security A gives a return of 12% with a dispersion of 4%, while security B gives return of 15% with a dispersion of 5%.which security is more risky? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Security A
(b) Both securities are equally risky
(c) Security B
(d) Neither of the securities is risky
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q29
Which of the following is NOT true about corporate securities market reforms? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Indian companies were allowed access to international capital market through issue of ADRs and GDRs.
(b) Major part of the liberalisation process was the repeal of the Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947 in May 1992.
(c) Permission to access the international capital market was withdrawn.
(d) To ensure effective regulation of the corporate securities market, the SEBI Act, 1992 was enacted to empower SEBI with statutory powers.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q30
A stock currently sells at 120. The put options to sell the stock sells at Rs. 134 costs Rs. 18. What is the time value of the option? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs.12
(b) Rs.18
(c) Rs.4
(d) Rs.14
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q31
The authority regulating the issue of shares by companies in the primary markets is the ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) National Stock Exchange
(c) Controller of Capital Issues
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q32
A trading member is getting a message that he has violated the gross exposure limit. The gross exposure at that point of time was Rs. 1400 lakh. What is his base capital? (Assume Rs. 1400 lakh is allowable gross exposure). [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 155.00 lakh
(b) Rs. 181.00 lakh
(c) Rs. 157.00 lakh
(d) Rs. 46.00 lakh
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q33
What are securities issued at Discount & redeemed at par? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Securities with Fixed Coupon rates
(b) Indexed Bonds
(c) Zero-Coupon Bonds
(d) Floating Rate Bonds
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q34
For what kind of results is Limited review mandatory? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Audited half-yearly
(b) Audited quarterly
(c) un-audited quarterly
(d) un-audited half-yearly
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q35
An at-the-money option contract would generate ______upon exercise for the buyer. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) negative cash flow
(b) positive cash flow
(c) no cash flow
(d) specified amount of cash flow
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q36
The cost of debt capital is cheaper in the capital structure under________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Net Operating Income Approach
(b) Traditional Approach
(c) Net Income Approach
(d) Modigliani and Miller Approach
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q37
Where securities are listed on the application of any person on any recognised stock exchange, such person shall comply with the conditions of the listing agreement with __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) that stock exchange
(b) Registrar of Companies
(c) Central Government
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q38
Average Collection Period is given by __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Average Accounts Payables/Average Daily Credit Sales
(b) Average Accounts Payables/Average Daily Credit Purchases
(c) Average Accounts Receivables/Average Daily Credit Sales
(d) Average Accounts Receivables/Average Daily Credit Purchases
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q39
The pre-issue and post-issue obligations are discharged by _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) bankers
(b) stock exchanges
(c) transfer agents
(d) merchant bankers
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q40
Find the spot rate uptill next coupon, using Nelson-Seigel Model when settlement date is 15th March 2003 & next coupon is 23rd September 2003, Beta 0=8, Beta 1 = -1.85, Beta 2 = -4 and Tau=15. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 5.9089
(b) 6.0576
(c) 6.1135
(d) 6.0045
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q41
What is the present value of Rs. 4000 receivable after two years at a discount rate of 5% under continuous discounting? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 3619.34
(b) Rs. 3800
(c) Rs. 3628.11
(d) Rs. 4200
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q42
Find the forward leg consideration for Security 11.50% 2012 for Settlement date of 25th August 2003 & Maturity date of 14th December 2012 with Market Price of Rs. 133 (Ex-Interest Price), Repo rate 8% p.a. & Repo term of 5 days. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) 135.6565
(b) 135.6246
(c) 135.4163
(d) 135.5812
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q43
Pay-in and pay-out of funds and securities are effected on the same day in the ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) ALBM Segment
(b) Rolling Market Segment
(c) Normal Market segment
(d) Limited Physical Segment
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q44
Trading member Mr. Shantilal took proprietary purchase in a March 2000 contract. He bought 1500 units @Rs.1200 and sold 1200 @ Rs. 1220. The end of day settlement price was Rs. 1221. What is the outstanding position on which initial margin will be calculated? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 1200 units
(b) 2700 units
(c) 1500 units
(d) 300 units
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q45
Which of the following is FALSE about the NEAT system? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) A member punches into the computer quantities of securities and the price at which he wants to transact.
(b) The transaction is executed through the mainframe computer of the exchange as soon as the order punched by the user finds a matching sale or buy order from a counter party.
(c) The identity of the trading member is revealed to make the system transparent.
(d) This system enables members from across the country to trade simultaneously with enormous ease and efficiency.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q46
A call option that is out-of-the-money or at-the-money has ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) no value
(b) only intrinsic value
(c) face value
(d) only time value
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q47
Which of the following is a criterion for admission of a stock into S&P CNX Nifty? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Stocks where prices have gone up recently
(b) Stocks where ICICI has appraised projects
(c) Stocks with low impact cost
(d) Stock with low P/E
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q48
NSE has set up Investor Protection Fund as a ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Company
(b) Cooperative Society
(c) Association
(d) Trust
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q49
The power to withdraw recognition to a Stock Exchange vests in ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Parliament
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(d) Department of Company Affairs
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q50
How much is the correlation coefficient between the companies A and B, if their covariance is 30 and their standard deviations respectively are 6 and 8? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 0.46
(b) 0.625
(c) 1.6
(d) 1
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q51
Mr. Harsh purchased 16000 shares of MTNL Options having strike price of 120. The market lot of the shares before adjustment was 1600. After the corporate action of 1:1 bonus in MTNL, the revised details in respect of strike price, Market lot and positions would be _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 120, 1600, 16000
(b) 240, 800, 8000
(c) 30, 1600, 8000
(d) 60, 3200, 32000
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q52
Spot value of Nifty is 1240. An investor buys a one-month nifty 1255 put option for a premium of Rs.17. The option is __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) at-the-money
(b) out-of-the-money
(c) in-the-money
(d) above-the-money
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q53
For a security B, if price at the beginning of the year is Rs.20; dividend receivable at the end of the year is Rs.0.5; and the price at the end of the year is Rs.22 then what is the rate of return on the security? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 0.095
(b) 0.125
(c) 0.045
(d) 0.135
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q54
Which of the following is NOT true about corporate securities market reforms? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The trading cycle in the stock exchanges follow rolling settlement.
(b) The practice of allocation of resources among different competing entities as well as its terms by a central authority was discontinued.
(c) The secondary market overcame the geographical barriers by moving to screen based trading.
(d) Counter-party risk is borne by investors.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q55
The depositories assist NSCCL to pay-in and pay-out of _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) securities held in demat form only
(b) securities held in physical form only
(c) securities held in demat as well as in physical form
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q56
Mr. A purchased equity shares of XYZ Ltd. at a cost of Rs. 95000/- on 1st June 2001. He sold the same on 1st January 2003 for Rs. 98000/-. (Given: Cost inflation index FY 2001-02 = 426, FY 2002-03 = 447 and 447/426 = 1.05). Long term capital profit / loss on this transaction would be ____. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Long term capital gain Rs. 3,000/-
(b) Long term capital loss Rs. 1,750/-
(c) Long term capital gain Rs. 1,750/-
(d) Long term capital loss Rs. 3,000/-
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q57
Which of the following is TRUE about primary markets? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Primary markets are places where only short term instruments are traded.
(b) Primary markets refer to the direct solicitation of funds from the public by companies.
(c) Primary markets are markets where commodities are sold.
(d) Primary markets is the place where public can buy and sell securities with one another.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q58
Premium Margin is levied at ___ level. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) broker
(b) trading member
(c) client
(d) clearing member
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q59
In the case of a GTC order, each day counted is a calendar day inclusive of ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Saturdays and Sundays
(b) Saturdays, Sundays and other Exchange specified holidays
(c) Sundays only
(d) Saturdays only
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q60
Which of the following is NOT true about a credit rating agency (CRA)? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) CRA can not rate the securities issued by its promoter
(b) CRA can be promoted by any company or body corporate having the networth of Rs. 100 crore in previous 3 years.
(c) CRA can not rate securities issued by any borrower, subsidiary, an associate promoter of CRA if there are common Chairman, Directors or employee between CRA or its rating committee and these entities.
(d) CRA has to have a minimum networth of 5 crore
(e) I am not attempting this question

NCFM CAPITAL MARKET (DEALERS) Module mock test questions

CAPITAL MARKET (DEALERS) Module

Q1
An application for arbitration can be filed within ____ from the date of dispute [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 45 days
(b) 3 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 6 months
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q2
Which of the following is FALSE about trade cancellation in the NEAT system? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The counterparty to the trade makes similar request on the same trading day.
(b) Identity of the users are disclosed to keep transparency.
(c) The user can use trade cancellation screen for cancelling trades done during the day.
(d) The user can request for trade cancellation from the previous trades screen.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q3
Which is the settlement system followed by NSCCL with effect from April 1, 2003? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Daily Settlement
(b) T+2 rolling settlement
(c) Account Period Settlement
(d) T+3 rolling settlement.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q4
Which of the following statement/s is TRUE on the NEAT system?
(A) Disclosed quantity orders cannot be modified to such a quantity where the disclosed quantity is greater than the order quantity.
(B) Except for the Limited Physical market, a user cannot modify an order to a quantity less than the specified Regular Lot and multiples of Regular Lot.
(C) Orders cannot be modified to a quantity greater than the issued capital for the security. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Only statements (A) and (C)
(b) Only statements (B) and (C)
(c) Statements (A), (B) and (C)
(d) Only statement (C)
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q5
Which of the following functions a branch manager can perform on the NEAT system [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The branch manager can receive the End of Day reports for the trading firm.
(b) The branch manager can view and perform order and trade related activities for the trading firm.
(c) The branch manager can view and perform order and trade related activities and receive the End of Day reports for all dealers under that branch.
(d) The branch manager can receive the End of Day reports of all the branches of the trading firm.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q6
The daily margin in T+2 rolling settlement comprises of ___________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Mark to Market Margin and Gross Exposure Margin
(b) Mark to Market Margin, Gross Exposure Margin and Value at Risk-based Margin
(c) Mark to Market Margin and Value at Risk-based Margin
(d) Gross Exposure Margin and Value at Risk-based Margin
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q7
Which of the following statement/s is TRUE on the NEAT system?
(A) Circulars, as and when issued by NSEIL, are available to members on the intranet in their respective trading member directory identified by their trading member id.
(B) A message is flashed on the NEAT screen when the circular is downloaded.
(C) The circular file is ********.wri where ******** indicates the department and Circular No. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Only statements (B) and (C)
(b) Only statements (A) and (B)
(c) Statements (A), (B) and (C)
(d) Only statements (A) and (C)
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q8
Which of the following is not true about Mark to Market Margin? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Mark to market margin is computed on the basis of mark to market loss of a member.
(b) Mark to market margin is calculated by marking each transaction in a scrip to the closing price of the scrip at the end of trading
(c) Mark to market profit/loss across different securities within the same settlement is set off to determine the mark to market loss for a settlement.
(d) Mark to market loss is the notional loss which the member would incur in case the cumulative gross outstanding position of the member in some securities were closed out at the closing price of the securities
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q9
Auction is held in PQR for 10,000 shares.
The closing price of PQR on that day was Rs.149.00
The last traded price of PQR on that day was Rs.144.0
The close price of PQR last Friday was Rs.145.00
The previous day's close price of PQR was Rs.154.00
What is the maximum allowable price at which the member can put a sell order in the auction for PQR? (Assume Price Band applicable for Auction market is +/-20%) [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 184.8
(b) Rs. 180.35
(c) Rs. 154
(d) Rs. 144
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q10
A trading member on the NSE, has a branch order value of Rs. 750 lakh for his Mumbai branch and Rs. 600 lakh for Delhi branch. Mumbai branch has two users 'X' and 'Y' with user order value limits of Rs. 200 lakh and Rs. 200 lakh respectively. Delhi branch has one user 'Z' with user order value limit of Rs. 450 lakh. The member applies for a new user at Mumbai. What is the maximum user order value that can be set for the new user? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 500 lakh
(b) Any amount, as there is no restriction on User Order Value
(c) Rs. 350 lakh
(d) Rs. 150 lakh
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q11
A client shall make payment for securities purchased to the trading member _______. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) on receipt of the securities
(b) Any amount, as there is no restriction on User Order Value
(c) before the funds pay-in day
(d) within 24 hours of sale
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q12
Which of the following is NOT a derivative traded on Indian Stock Market? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Index Options
(b) Stock Futures
(c) Index Futures
(d) Forward Rate Agreements
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q13
Contract note is signed by the _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) dealer
(b) dominant promoters
(c) directors
(d) authorised signatory
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q14
Which of the following is FALSE about auctions in the NEAT system? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) All auction orders are entered into the auction order book.
(b) Auction order matching takes place at the end of the solicitor period for the auction.
(c) Auction matching takes place only across orders belonging to the same auction.
(d) All auction trades take place at the last traded price for that day in the regular lot book in the normal market
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q15
In which book type on the NEAT system, does the user enter Limited Physical orders? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) SL
(b) RL
(c) OL
(d) SP
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q16
Which of the following statements is FALSE about the NEAT system? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The order/trade slips are Confirmation/Modification/Cancellation/Rejection slips.
(b) Members can take print of confirmation slips at the end of the day from the reprint option in the supplementary menu
(c) Margin report is generated on-line.
(d) The trade and order slips are generated on-line.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q17
If a client buys shares worth Rs. 1,25,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 75,000 through a sub-broker, then the maximum brokerage payable to him is ___. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 24,000
(b) Rs. 16,000
(c) Rs. 3,000
(d) Rs. 20,000
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q18
A trading member submits ____________ to the stock exchange on an annual basis.
(A) audited financial statements
(B) networth certificate
(C) proof of renewal of insurance cover [ 2 Marks ]

(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A) and (C) only
(c) (B) and (C) only
(d) (A) only
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q19
Is it compulsory for a trading member to maintain a separate bank account for the Clients? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Yes, only if his clients request for opening a bank account
(b) No
(c) Yes, only if his clients are not his relatives
(d) Yes
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q20
A copy of an advertisement has to be submitted by a trading member to NSE __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) for record
(b) for information
(c) after its issue in publication/media
(d) for prior approval before its issue in publication/media
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q21
A portfolio contains securities with the expected return as follows:-

Security
Probability
Return

A
40
30

B
20
30

C
40
50



What will be the expected return of the portfolio? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 2.1
(b) 46
(c) 38
(d) 3,150
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q22
A settlement system has ________.
(A) counterparty risk
(B) systems risk
(C) liquidity risk [ 2 Marks ]

(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) only (C)
(d) (A) and (C)
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q23
What does 'OM' indicate as an activity in the 'Activity Log' screen in the NEAT system? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Order Modified
(b) Trade Cancelled
(c) Trade Modified
(d) Order Cancelled
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q24
NSE's Certification in Financial Markets does NOT allow flexibility in terms of ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) candidate's presence
(b) test date
(c) testing centre
(d) test time
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q25
How many depositories are there in India? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 0
(d) 1
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q26
In the event of the user forgetting his password on the NEAT system, the trading member is required to _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) reset the password and inform the exchange
(b) login with a password of another user of the same trading member
(c) login with the default password and enter a new password
(d) inform the Exchange in writing to reset the password
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q27
Register of transactions (Sauda Book) shall be preserved for a period of _____ years by the stock broker as per the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Rules, 1957 [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 7
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 6
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q28
The members/custodians make available the required securities in their ____________ with Depository Participants by the prescribed pay-in time for securities. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Client Account
(b) Receipt Account
(c) Delivery Account
(d) Pool Account
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q29
What is the maximum number of depository accounts that can be opened by an investor? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Only one account with a particular depository participant
(b) One account only
(c) There is no restriction on the number of accounts an investor can open
(d) It depends on his Net Worth
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q30
VaR margin is charged at differential rate on the ____________ position of the client. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Gross outstanding sale.
(b) Net sale
(c) Net outstanding sale.
(d) Gross sale.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q31
Which of the following statements is TRUE? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The reliance on public issues has increased in the recent past.
(b) Private placement is costly and time consuming.
(c) Public issues is a preferred means of raising resources in the corporate sector.
(d) The amount raised through private placements far exceeds that raised through public issues.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q32
A registered sub-broker, holding registration granted by SEBI on the recommendation of a trading member, can transact through ____________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) a stock exchange directly
(b) any member broker of a stock exchange
(c) the member broker who had recommended his application for registration
(d) any member broker of any stock exchange
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q33
______ or a corporate can become member of an exchange [ 1 Mark ]

(a) An individual, a partnership firm
(b) Hindu Undivided Family
(c) An individual, a partnership firm, Hindu Undivided Family
(d) An individual, Hindu Undivided Family
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q34
NSCCL uses services of _________ to transfer demat securities [ 1 Mark ]

(a) depositories
(b) clearing Banks
(c) share transfer agents
(d) custodians
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q35
A sub-broker can have a maximum of ___ clients. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 500
(b) 50
(c) unlimited
(d) 100
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q36
The amount in unpaid dividend accounts of companies shall be transferred to the: ____. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Dividend Equalisation Reserve
(b) Investor Education and Protection Fund
(c) Investor Protection Fund
(d) General Revenue Account of the Central Government
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q37
Which is the principal Act that governs the trading in securities market in India? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Companies Act, 1956
(b) Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
(c) SEBI Act, 1992
(d) Depositories Act, 1996
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q38
Penalty points are charged to members for ______________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) only for violation in respect of client code modifications.
(b) only for violation in respect of non-confirmation of custodial trades.
(c) only for gross exposure and turnover violations.
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q39
Members can submit which of the following as additional base capital to NSCCL. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Cash.
(b) Bank Guarantee
(c) Fixed Deposit Receipts
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q40
A trading member on the NSE, has set the branch order value unlimited for his Chennai branch and Rs. 950 lakh for Kolkata branch. Chennai branch has two users 'X' and 'Y' with user order limits of Rs. 250 lakh and Rs. 300 lakh respectively. Kolkata branch has one user 'Z' with user order value limit of Rs. 350 lakh. The member applies for a new user at Kolkata. What is the maximum user order value that can be set for the new user? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Not more than Rs. 950 lakh
(b) Zero
(c) unlimited
(d) Rs. 600 lakh
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q41
What is the minimum networth for a corporate member in Capital Market and F&O segments of NSEIL? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 5 lakh
(b) Rs. 200 lakh
(c) Rs. 10 lakh
(d) Rs. 100 lakh
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q42
A trading member is getting a message that he has violated the gross exposure limit. The gross exposure at that point of time was Rs. 1300 lakh. What is his base capital? (Assume Rs. 1300 lakh is allowable gross exposure). [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 46.00 lakh
(b) Rs. 145.00 lakh
(c) Rs. 157.00 lakh
(d) Rs. 181.00 lakh
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q43
Rahul is supposed to receive Rs. 90,000 from Chandra after 3 years. If the interest rate is 8%, what is the present value of the amount due from Chandra? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 81,444.9
(b) 71,444.9
(c) 86,444.9
(d) 91,444.9
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q44
Which of the following statement/s is TRUE about trade cancellation in the NEAT system?
(A) The trade cancellation request is sent to the Exchange for approval and message to that effect is displayed in the message window.
(B) When a request for the trade cancellation is approved by the Exchange, the parties to trade receive a system message confirming the trade cancellation and the trade cancellation slip is printed at their respective trader workstations.
(C) If the Exchange rejects the trade cancellation request, the trade cancellation rejection slip is printed at their respective trader workstations. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Only statements (A) and (C)
(b) Only statement (C)
(c) Only statements (B) and (C)
(d) Statements (A), (B) and (C)
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q45
Which of the following obligation reports are NOT generated by the clearing software? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Daily Obligation Statement
(b) Final Settlement Obligations Statement
(c) Margin Report
(d) Daily Obligation Statement of Custodial Trades
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q46
What can the corporate manager view in the 'Activity Log' screen in the NEAT system? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) He can view all activities that have been performed on any order for own User Id only.
(b) He can view all the activities that have been performed on any order or all orders under all branches or for a specific branch and for a specific dealer or for all dealers.
(c) He has no access to the 'Activity Log' screen.
(d) He can view all activities that have been performed on any order of the whole market.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q47
What does 'LIS' indicate as a message code in 'Full Message window' in the NEAT system? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) All listing related messages
(b) There is no such message code as 'LIS' in the Full Message Window
(c) All messages related to suspension for trading of listed securities only
(d) All messages related to newly listed securities only
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q48
A person can become a member of __ recognised Stock Exchanges. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 15
(b) any number of
(c) 10
(d) only one
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q49
In the demat environment, the securities are transferred from one account to another through book entry only on the instructions of the _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) beneficial owner
(b) company concerned
(c) stock exchange concerned
(d) depository
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q50
NSCCL pays-out demat securities to the members in the __________ from where these are transferred to the ____________ of the members. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Clients Account, Pool Account
(b) Pool Account, Clients Account
(c) Delivery Account, Pool Account
(d) Receipt Account, Delivery Account
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q51
The maximum amount of claim payable from the IPF to the investor (where the trading member through whom the investor has dealt is declared a defaulter) is ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Rs. 7 lakh
(b) Rs. 10 lakh
(c) Rs. 17 lakh
(d) Rs. 1 lakh
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q52
If a client buys shares worth Rs. 90,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 1,10,000 through a stock-broker, then the maximum brokerage payable is _____. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Rs. 4,000
(b) Rs. 5,000
(c) Rs. 2,000
(d) Rs. 6,000
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q53
Which of the following does NOT issue securities in the primary market? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Government of India
(b) Stock Exchanges
(c) Companies
(d) Financial Institutions
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q54
As per the provisions of SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) regulations, any person who holds more than _____________ shares or voting rights in any listed company shall make such disclosure to the company. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 2%
(b) 10%
(c) 5%
(d) 3%
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q55
Which address of the Corporate trading member is printed on the contract note?
(A) Registered office address
(B) Dealing office address
(C) Correspondence address [ 2 Marks ]

(a) (C)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (A) and (B)
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q56
Mr. Desai has decided to deposit Rs. 100,000 in the bank annually. If the bank has a policy of continuous compounding and the prevailing interest rate is 11.5% how much would his deposit grow upto in 2 years? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 166,141.11
(b) 171,507.54
(c) 185,570.7
(d) 224,871.26
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q57
A maximum penalty of Rs. _______ can be imposed for insider trading, as prescribed under SEBI Act, 1992. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 5 lakh
(b) 50,000
(c) 3 lakh
(d) 1 lakh
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q58
What does 'P' indicate as a status in the 'Auction Inquiry' screen in the NEAT system? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Auction is pending and yet to begin.
(b) Auction is deleted.
(c) There is no such status indicator as 'P' in the Auction Inquiry screen.
(d) Auction is over.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q59
Every stock broker shall preserve the books of accounts and other records prescribed under the SEBI (Stock Brokers and Sub-brokers) Regulations, 1992 for a minimum period of _______ years. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q60
Which of the following is/are TRUE about the ticker in the NEAT system?
(A) The user has the option of selecting the securities that should appear in the ticker.
(B) When a request for the trade cancellation is approved by the Exchange, the parties to trade receive a system message confirming the trade cancellation and the trade cancellation slip is printed at their respective trader workstations.
(C) The ticker displays information about any trade in the system as and when it takes place. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Only statements (B) and (C)
(b) Statements (A), (B) and (C)
(c) Only statement (C)
(d) Only statements (A) and (C)
(e) I am not attempting this question


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NCFM Information Security Auditors Module - (Part 1) mock test questions

(A) Information Security Auditors Module - (Part 1)

Q1
Which areas offer protection under the Copyright Act? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Original Literary Work
(b) Original Musical Work
(c) Computer Programme
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q2
Which of the following describes a structured walk-through test? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) All departments receive a copy of the disaster recovery plan and walk through it.
(b) Representatives from each department come together and go through the test collectively.
(c) It is performed to ensure that critical systems will run at the alternate site.
(d) Normal operations are shut down.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q3
Why is cascading revoke not always desirable? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Because it compromises the system security.
(b) Because it leads to unnecessary revokes.
(c) Because it hampers the system performance
(d) Because it violates database rules.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q4
Which access control technique secures information by assigning sensitivity levels to data? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) RBAC
(b) MAC
(c) DAC
(d) Biba
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q5
Which of the following is TRUE about primary markets? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Primary markets is the place where public can buy and sell securities with one another.
(b) Primary markets are places where only short term instruments are traded
(c) Primary markets are markets where commodities are sold.
(d) Primary markets refer to the direct solicitation of funds from the public by companies.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q6
The _________issued by SEBI aim to secure fuller disclosure of the relevant information about the issuer and the nature of issue so that the investors can take informed decision. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Disclosure and Investor Protection Guidelines
(b) SC(R)A
(c) SEBI (Stock Brokers and Sub brokers) Rules
(d) SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Relating to Securities Markets) regulations
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q7
Stock Broker as per the SEBI (Stock Brokers and Sub-brokers) Rules, 1992 means __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) a member of the Board
(b) a member of the Clearing Corporation
(c) a member of the Stock Exchange
(d) a member of the Clearing House
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q8
Business continuity does not replace _____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Facilities
(b) Insurance
(c) Interruption
(d) Product
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9
According to IT Act what is/are offences pertaining to computer, computer network or computer program? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Securing access to somebody else's computer.
(b) Intentionally concealing the computer source code
(c) Intentionally altering the data
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q10
Which of the following is not true about offer of shares through normal public issue? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) In normal Public issue, investors bid for shares at the floor price or above and after the Closure of the process the price is determined for allotment of shares.
(b) In case of the normal public issue the demand for an issue is known at the close of the issue.
(c) In case of offer of shares through normal public issue price at which securities will be allotted is known to an investor in advance.
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q11
Under copyright act, a copyright office for this purpose is a must [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Also requestions[ires a secluded location.
(b) And can have more then one offices if requestions[ired.
(c) FALSE
(d) TRUE
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q12
Which Risk Management methodology uses the exposure factor multiplied by the asset value to determine its outcome? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Information Risk Management
(b) Annualized Loss Expectancy
(c) Single Loss Expectancy
(d) Annualized Rate of Occurrence
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q13
On NSE's options market, until the buyer pays in the premium, the premium due is deducted from the available _________ on a real time basis. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) cash deposit
(b) liquid net worth
(c) cash and non-cash deposit
(d) effective deposit
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q14
Find the odd one [ 1 Mark ]

(a) GRANT
(b) CASCADE
(c) REVOKE
(d) INSERT
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15
Which of the following best describes what a disaster recovery plan should contain? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Software, media interaction, people, hardware, management issues.
(b) Hardware, software, people, emergency procedures, recovery procedures.
(c) People, hardware, offsite facility.
(d) Hardware, emergency procedures, software, identified risk.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16
Which term best suits the statement 'tracks what the user did and when they did it'? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Accounting
(b) Authorization
(c) Authentication
(d) Validation
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q17
An at-the-money option contract would generate __________upon exercise for the buyer. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) positive cash flow
(b) specified amount of cash flow
(c) no cash flow
(d) negative cash flow
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q18
The most risk from a disaster occurs when there is __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Low Probability and High Vulnerability
(b) High Probability and Low Vulnerability
(c) High Probability and High Vulnerability
(d) Low Probability and Low Vulnerability
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q19
To get proper management support and approval of the plan, a business case must be made. Which of the following is least important to this business case? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) How other companies are dealing with these issues.
(b) The impact the company can endure if a disaster hits.
(c) Regulatory and legal requirements.
(d) Company vulnerabilities to disasters and disruptions.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q20
What factor/s affect the interest rate? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Supply of money
(b) Government borrowings
(c) Inflation rate
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q21
Which of the following describes a parallel test? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Normal operations are shut down.
(b) Representatives from each department come together and go through the test collectively.
(c) All departments receive a copy of the disaster recovery plan and walk through it.
(d) It is performed to ensure that some systems will run at the alternate site.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q22
Which is the principal Act that governs the trading in securities market in India? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
(b) SEBI Act, 1992
(c) Depositories Act, 1996
(d) Companies Act, 1956
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q23
Who issues the registration to a Mutual Fund in India? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Only SEBI
(b) SEBI for all types of Mutual Funds and additional permission from RBI in case of a Mutual Fund being a subsidiary of a bank.
(c) RBI for all types of Mutual Funds and additional permission from SEBI in case of a Mutual Fund being a subsidiary of a bank.
(d) Only RBI.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q24
What is the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Minimum elapsed time requeired to complete recovery of application data.
(b) Maximum elapsed time requeired to move back to primary site after a major disruption.
(c) It is maximum delay businesses can tolerate and still remain viable.
(d) Maximum elapsed time requestions[ired to complete recovery of application data.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q25
State which of the following is false? The following dealings as per the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003 are prohibited _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) employing any manipulative device to defraud in connection with the issue of securities
(b) buying, selling or otherwise dealing in securities
(c) engaging in any act which would deceive a person in connection with the issue of securities
(d) employing any device to defraud in connection with dealing in any securities listed on a recognized stock exchange
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q26
What are the punishments for a criminal offence under the copyright law? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Imprisonment for six months with the minimum fine of Rs. 100,000/-.
(b) Imprisonment for ten months with the minimum fine of Rs. 50,000/-.
(c) Imprisonment for six months with the minimum fine of Rs. 50,000/-.
(d) Imprisonment for six years with the minimum fine of Rs. 25,000/-.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q27
Which of the following statements correctly describes passwords? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) They are the least expensive and most secure.
(b) They are the most expensive and least secure.
(c) They are the most expensive and most secure
(d) They are the least expensive and least secure.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q28
What is the specialty of RADIUS server? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) System allows multiple logons
(b) User given permanent authentication
(c) Information never sent on network
(d) User friendly
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q29
Which of the following teams should not be included in an organization's contingency plan? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Damage assessment team
(b) Legal affairs team
(c) Hardware salvage team
(d) Tiger team
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q30
According to IT Act, RBI has prescribed which system for authentication purpose? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Hash function
(b) Asymmetric crypto system and Hash function
(c) Asymmetric crypto system
(d) Symmetric crypto system and Hash function
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q31
A password is mainly used for what function? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Authentication
(b) Authorizations
(c) Identity
(d) Registration
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q32
Which one of the offence deems fit to be punished according to IT Act of India? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Introducing a computer contaminant
(b) Disruption of computer networks
(c) Lascivious material published in electronic form
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q33
Which is a punishable offence according to IT Act of India? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Digital transmission
(b) Penetration Testing
(c) Hacking
(d) Ethical hacking
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q34
Clark-Wilson model differs from the other models in what way? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Introducing a third access element-programs.
(b) Introducing a third access element procedures
(c) Is safest among all the models.
(d) Is the only model that focuses on integrity.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q35
Which can you relate to a disaster? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Event that results a business going out of business.
(b) Event that results in death.
(c) Event that results serious injury.
(d) None of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q36
Derivative includes:A) A security derived from a debt instrument, share, loan whether secured or unsecured, risk Instrument or contract for differences or any other form of security.B) A contract which derives its value from the prices, or index or prices, of underlying securities. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Both (A) and (B)
(b) Only A
(c) Only B
(d) Neither (A) nor (B).
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q37
Which among the following is the Business Recovery Strategy in BCP process? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Back-Up Recovery
(b) Environment Failure Recovery
(c) Business Functions Recovery
(d) Facility Recovery
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q38
What is the most important biometric system characteristic? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Acceptability of users
(b) Reliability
(c) Speed and throughput
(d) Enrollment Time
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q39
What does continuity of operations plan focus on? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Outlining of roles and authorities, orders of succession, and individual role tasks.
(b) Focuses on how to recover various IT mechanisms after a disaster.
(c) Planning for systems, networks, and major applications recovery procedures after disruptions
(d) Establishing personnel safety and evacuation procedures.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q40
Pertaining to IT Act what rules can central government make with respect of digital signature? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The type of digital signature.
(b) The manner and format in which the digital signature shall be affixed.
(c) Any other matter which is necessary to give legal effect to digital signatures.
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q41
What is the maximum number of depository accounts that can be opened by an investor? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Only one account with a particular depository participant.
(b) One account only
(c) There is no restriction on the number of accounts an investor can open.
(d) It depends on his Net Worth.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q42
In case of default in repayment to small depositors, intimation of such fact should be given within ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) one month from the date of default
(b) 60 days from the date of default
(c) 15 days from the date of default
(d) three months from the date of default
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q43
Exchange Traded Derivatives has been introduced in Indian Financial Market by ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) NSCCL
(b) RBI
(c) NSDL
(d) SEBI
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q44
__________ model enables the owner of the resource to specify what subjects can access specific Resources [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Role-based Access Control
(b) Sensitive Access Control
(c) Discretionary Access Control
(d) Mandatory Access Control
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q45
As per the SEBI (ESOS and ESPS) Guidelines 1999, _____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) an employee who is a promoter or belongs to the promoter group shall not be eligible to participate in the ESPS
(b) an employee who is promoter shall be eligible to participate in the ESPS
(c) an employee who belongs to the promoter group shall be eligible to participate in the ESPS
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q46
Principal officer as per the SEBI (Underwriters) Regulations, 1993 means _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) any person connected with the management of the firm where the firm has stated that he is the principal officer
(b) any person connected with the management of the firm upon whom the Board has served a notice of its intention to treat him as principal officer
(c) any person connected with the administration of the firm
(d) any person connected with the administration of the firm where the firm has stated that he is the principal officer
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q47
Which one among these is a access control device? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) NIC
(b) Mouse
(c) Scanner
(d) Smart Card
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q48
Which of the following is an issue with signature-based intrusion detection systems? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Hackers can circumvent signature evaluations.
(b) Previously defined attack signatures often evolve making the signatures invalid.
(c) Signature databases must be augmented with inferential elements.
(d) Only previously identified attack signatures are detected.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q49
Premium Margin is levied at _________ level [ 1 Mark ]

(a) clearing member
(b) broker
(c) trading member
(d) client
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q50
What does SEBI do? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It facilitates a high level of control and in-depth monitoring of security markets.
(b) It enters into dealings in securities in which dealings are not permitted.
(c) It ensures that the integrity of the exchanged data is maintained at all times.
(d) It can frame or issue rules, regulations, directives, guidelines, and norms in respect of primary markets and secondary markets.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q51
The Court shall take cognizance of the offence punishable under the Depository Act 1996 on complaint made by ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) SEBI
(b) Central Government
(c) State Government
(d) Any of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q52
Who is responsible to make avoid, mitigate, or absorb risk decisions? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Management
(b) Damage assessment team
(c) Planner
(d) Security Team
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q53
In Business Continuity Planning, RPO stands for ______________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Recovery Point Objective
(b) Random Position Objective
(c) Run Projection Outage
(d) Round Point Objection
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q54
What does disaster recovery plan focus on? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Establishing personnel safety and evacuation procedures.
(b) Planning for systems, networks, and major applications recovery procedures after disruptions.
(c) Outlining of roles and authorities, orders of succession, and individual role tasks.
(d) Focuses on how to recover various IT mechanisms after a disaster.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q55
In IT Act what does legal recognition of digital signatures pertains to? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) That information or any other matter shall be authenticated by affixing the signature.
(b) That information or any other matter shall be sent only by email.
(c) That information or any other matter shall be legally assigned.
(d) That data or any other matter shall contain signature.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q56
A firewall located between the Internet and your organization's private network is called a __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Departmental LAN firewall
(b) VPN gateway
(c) Proxy
(d) Network perimeter firewall
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q57
Profit and Loss account of a company shows __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the revenues and expenses during particular period of time
(b) the revenues and expenses of the company at a particular point of time
(c) the financial position of the company at a particular point of time
(d) None of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q58
The information about the transfer of securities in the name of the beneficial owners has to be furnished _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) by the beneficial owner to the depository
(b) by the issuer to the depository
(c) by the depository to the beneficial owner
(d) by the depository to the issuer
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q59
Which of the following is FALSE about the NEAT system? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The identity of the trading member is revealed to make the system transparent.
(b) This system enables members from across the country to trade simultaneously with enormous ease and efficiency
(c) A member punches into the computer questions[antities of securities and the price at which he wants to transact.
(d) The transaction is executed through the mainframe computer of the exchange as soon as the order punched by the user finds a matching sale or buy order from a counter party.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q60
Name the team/s that should be properly trained and available if a disaster hits? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Relocation team
(b) Legal team
(c) Security team
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q61
Which access control model is also called non-discretionary access control? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Role-based access control
(b) Mandatory access control
(c) Rule-based access control
(d) Label-based access control
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q62
The goal of business continuity and disaster recovery is to __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) mitigate business impact
(b) mitigate operational impact
(c) mitigate financial impact
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q63
Which access control technice restricts information based on the authorization granted to a particular user? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) DAC
(b) RBAC
(c) MAC
(d) Biba
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q64
SEBI administers the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956 in respect of __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) inter corporate loans and investments
(b) holding of the annual general meeting
(c) issue and transfer of securities and non-payment of dividend
(d) acceptance of deposits
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q65
Which of the following are the two most well known access control models? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Bell LaPadula and Biba
(b) Bell LaPadula and Chinese war
(c) Lattice and Biba
(d) Bell LaPadula and Info Flow
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q66
Which of the following is not a SSO access approach? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The clients
(b) Kerberos
(c) Discretionary
(d) Scripts
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q67
Which of the following is not an advantage of a hot site? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Offers many hardware and software choices.
(b) Is readily available.
(c) Annual testing is available.
(d) Can be up and running in hours.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q68
With respect to Copyright, what is adaptation? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The preparation of a new work in the same or different form based upon an already existing work.
(b) A member of copyright board getting familiar to his new role.
(c) The migration procedure of registrar and chairman of copyright board.
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q69
_________ is a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Passphrase
(b) Anticipated phrase
(c) Real phrase
(d) Congnitive phrase
(e) I am not attempting the questions

Q70
What does authentication mean? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Validating a user
(b) Registering a user
(c) Identifying a user
(d) Authorizing a user
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q71
Any bank encountering security breaches or failure of security system's should ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) report to Reserve Bank of India
(b) close all its online transaction's
(c) assign the recovery process to third party
(d) inform all its branches
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q72
A client/server, single sign-on is a session/user authentication where in ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) permits a user to enter many usernames and password in order to access multiple applications
(b) permits a user to enter one username and password in order to access multiple applications
(c) permits a user to enter many usernames and password in order to access single application
(d) permits a user to enter one username and password in order to access single application
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q73
After identifying risks to the critical business functions the planners do which of the following? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Absorb Risk
(b) Avoid Risk
(c) Mitigate Risk
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q74
As per the listing agreement, the Chairman of which Committees should be present at the Annual General meetings of the company? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Remuneration Committee
(b) Only Audit Committee
(c) Shareholders Grievance Committee
(d) Audit Committee and Remuneration Committee
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q75
Consider the following scenario: A person builds a house on an ocean beach. A storm washes away the beach. The house collapses. Disaster recovery would suggest that ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) rebuild the house in time for the next storm
(b) building a barrier reef or moving the house farther inland
(c) a storm will come ashore and damage the house
(d) make sure there is someplace to live while the house is rebuilt
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q76
In discretionary access control security, who has delegation authority to grant access to data? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Owner
(b) User
(c) Security office
(d) Security policy
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q77
In IT Act what is of utmost importance? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Reliable communication
(b)Secure transmission
(c)High degree of availability
(d)Use of digital certificates
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q78
Which of the following describes a cold site? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Fully equipped and operational in a few hours.
(b)Partially equipped with data processing equipment.
(c)Provides environmental measures but no equipment.
(d)Expensive and fully configured.
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q79
All members of the audit committee shall be _________ literate [ 1 Mark ]

(a)financially
(b)educationally
(c)technologically
(d)All of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q80
The SEBI Committee on derivatives has recommended that the exposure limits for brokers should be linked to the __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)deposits kept by the broker with the Exchange/Clearing corporation
(b)satisfactory margin payment track record of the broker
(c)networth of the broker
(d)daily turnover of the broker
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q81
What is the reason for enforcing the separation of duties? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)It induces an atmosphere for collusion.
(b)It increases dependence on individuals.
(c)No one person can complete all the steps of a critical activity.
(d)It makes critical tasks easier to accomplish.
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q82
Which instrument among these is considered the most challenging and rewarding investment option, when compared to other investment options? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Treasury Bill
(b)Equity
(c)Bonds
(d)Fixed Deposit
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q83
Every recognised stock exchange shall furnish copy of Annual Report to _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)State Government
(b)SEBI
(c)Central Government
(d)SEBI and Central Government
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q84
In MAC, what is Labeling at finer granularity? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Individual attributes of each row is labeled.
(b)Individual row of each relation is labeled.
(c)Individual column of each relation is labeled.
(d)Individual field of each column is labeled.
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q85
Firewall helps detection of virus or malicious intrusion in __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Real time
(b)Logging
(c)No alert just deny the attacker
(d)All of above.
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q86
Of all business process interruptions, the most devastating are ones resulting from ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)loss of applications
(b)loss of data
(c)loss of hardware/software
(d)loss of communication links
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q87
During development, testing, and maintenance of the continuity plan, a high degree of interaction and communications is crucial to the process. Why? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)This is a regulatory requirement of the process.
(b)This is not crucial to the plan and should not be interactive because it will most likely affect operations.
(c)The more people that talk about it and are involved, the more awareness will increase.
(d)Management will more likely support it.
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q88
Primarily IT Act wants digital certificates to ______________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)uniquely identify a subscriber
(b)uniquely identify a certification authority
(c)uniquely identify a digital signature
(d)All of the above
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q89
Users might have different usernames and passwords, sometimes to remember all of that is very difficult for purpose of e-commerce. Which solution is the best for this kind of scenario? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Smart Card
(b)Single sign-on
(c)PDA
(d)Kerberos
(e)I am not attempting the question

Q90
The audit committee of the holding company shall review the investments made by ________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) unlisted subsidiary companies
(b) material subsidiary companies
(c) subsidiary companies
(d) listed subsidiary companies
(e) I am not attempting the question


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NCFM Information Security Auditors Module - (Part 2) mock test papers

(B) Information Security Auditors Module - (Part 2)

Q1
The security functionality defines the expected activities of a security mechanism, and assurance defines __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the confidence of the security the mechanism is providing
(b) cost/benefit relationship
(c) the data classification after the security mechanism has been implemented
(d) the controls the security mechanism will enforce
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q2
A cipher lock uses a keypad and is ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Expensive
(b) Programmable
(c) Reliable
(d) Portable
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q3
What is vulnerability? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Can be leaky policy.
(b) A security hole
(c) An accessing data.
(d) A weakness that could be exploited.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q4
__________ are objects, in form of credit cards, size memory cards or smart cards, or those resembling small calculators, that are used to supply static and dynamic passwords. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Tokens
(b) Token passing network
(c) Coupons
(d) Token ring
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q5
What will be Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) of the treat 'user input error', in the case that company employs 100 data entry clerks and every one of them make one input error each month? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1200
(b) 120
(c) 1
(d) 100
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q6
What is the formula for total risk? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) {(Threats X Vulnerability ) + asset value}
(b) (Threats X Vulnerability X asset value)
(c) Threats + vulnerability - asset value) X controls gap
(d) (Threats X vulnerability X asset value) X controls gap
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q7
What is true about a transponder? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It is a passive proximity device.
(b) It is a card that a user swipes through a card reader to gain access to a facility.
(c) It is a card that can be read without sliding it through a card reader.
(d) It exchanges tokens with an authentication server.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q8
Which type of encryption would be considered the more secured encryption method across a single link? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Link encryption
(b) Transport encryption
(c) End-to-end encryption
(d) Tunnel encryption
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9
Although the words 'Threat' , 'Vulnerability', 'risk' and 'exposure' sounds similar which one best describes the probability of threat materializing? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Risk
(b) Threat Agent
(c) Vulnerability
(d) Exposure
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q10
Which one does not fall in Risk Assessment activity? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Treatment options
(b) Reduction and Acceptance
(c) Selection of security controls and risk
(d) None of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q11
Which of the following would not be considered an operations media control task? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Compressing and decompressing storage materials.
(b) Controlling access to media and logging activities.
(c) Storing backup information in a protected area.
(d) Erasing data when its retention period is over.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q12
In business company's terms what is the other word for intellectual data? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Forecast information
(b) Information data
(c) Company profile
(d) Procedure
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q13
In portable computer environment, what kind of attacks are common to compromise data integrity? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Phishing
(b) Virus attacks
(c) Terrorist attacks
(d) Physical alteration of data
(e) I am not attempting the questions

Q14
What is an advantage of content-dependent access control in databases? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Ensures concurrency
(b) Disallows data locking
(c) Processing overhead
(d) Granular control
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15
In finger scan biometric, what is the average processing time? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 8 seconds
(b) 7 seconds
(c) 2 - 3 seconds
(d) 10 seconds
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16
Which best describes a quantitative risk analysis? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) A method that assigns monetary values to components in the risk assessment.
(b) A method that is based on gut feelings and opinions.
(c) Scenario-based analysis to research different security threats.
(d) A method used to apply severity levels to potential loss, probability of loss and risks.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q17
_________ type of lock uses programmable keypads to restrict access [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Cipher
(b) Preset
(c) Device
(d) Complex
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q18
Among the following what is a disadvantage of intrusion detection system? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Are expensive to install
(b) Can be penetrated
(c) Are subject to false alarms
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q19
Recommendations and general approaches that provide advice and flexibility are called as ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Procedure
(b) Guideline
(c) Standard
(d) Policy
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q20
You take a fire insurance policy and give the risk for fire to an insurance company, what kind of risk management technique is this? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Transfer the risk.
(b) Risk reduction
(c) Acceptance of risk
(d) Avoidance of risk
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q21
On what are risk reduction technique based? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The costs of mitigating actions that could be taken.
(b) The costs of potential losses.
(c) The likelihood that a damaging event will occur.
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q22
What does SSL do? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It encrypts the communication between the browser and the web server.
(b) It encrypts the communication between the browser and client.
(c) It authenticates the browser to the web server.
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q23
The PRIMARY purpose of operations security is to ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) establish thresholds for violation detection and logging
(b) monitor the actions of vendor service personnel
(c) protect the system hardware from environment damage
(d) safeguard information assets that are resident in the system
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q24
Which of the following centrally controls the database and manages different aspects of the data? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Database
(b) Access control
(c) Data dictionary
(d) Data storage
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q25
Who is ultimately responsible for making sure data is classified and protected? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Users
(b) Management
(c) Administration
(d) Security analyst
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q26
Inventories are used for maintaining company's ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) software assets
(b) paper assets
(c) physical assets
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q27
_______ procedures cover the firewalls, routers, switches and operating systems. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Administrative
(b) Incident response
(c) Auditing
(d) Configuration
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q28
How does proximity detector intrusion systems work? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) By detecting any sound that is made during a forced entry.
(b) By detecting a change or break in a circuit.
(c) By monitoring the magnetic field which it produces.
(d) By detecting the change in a light beam.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q29
Which option relates to views? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Allow the data base to be conceptually divided into pieces.
(b) Allow users to selectively and dynamically grant privileges to other users.
(c) Allows a user access to an object dynamically.
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q30
What is shared information? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Publicly accessible
(b) Restricted to a specific list of people
(c) Your internal employees only
(d) Shared within groups
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q31
Who should measure the effectiveness of security related controls in an organization? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The local security specialist
(b) The central security manager
(c) The business manager
(d) The system auditor
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q32
Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Availability
(b) Confidentiality
(c) Integrity and control
(d) All of the above.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q33
What is the most critical characteristic of a biometric identifying system? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Storage requirements
(b) Accuracy
(c) Reliability
(d) Perceived intrusiveness
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q34
Any compromise in a security policy could lead to ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) hamper the company's work flow
(b) increase in company's turnover
(c) rejection of company's security certification
(d) company's loss of sensitive information
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q35
A security policy does not contain _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the implementation process of the security
(b) the statement of words which concerns security
(c) the security goal to be achieved
(d) the awareness of security for employees
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q36
What is a protocol? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) A set of rules that dictates how computers exchange a service over networks.
(b) A set of rules that dictates how computers communicate over networks.
(c) It is a de facto standard for transmitting data across the internet.
(d) It is the major component of the ping utility.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q37
Buffer overflow and boundary condition errors are subsets of _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) exceptional condition handling errors
(b) access validation errors
(c) race condition errors
(d) input validation errors
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q38
Why should employers make sure employees take their vacations? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It is a way that fraud can be uncovered.
(b) To ensure that the employee does not get burnt out.
(c) They have a legal obligation.
(d) It is part of due diligence
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q39
What is a short coming of a firewall? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) They do not help to detect if an intrusion occurred and they can also be bypassed.
(b) They are not easily upgradeable.
(c) They are very costly to implement.
(d) They slow down the overall performance of the network.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q40
Which of the following items is not considered a preventive physical control? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Security dogs
(b) Security guard
(c) Access log
(d) Fencing
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q41
Which of the following fire suppressing agents should not be used in an operations center containing employees? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Water
(b) Gas
(c) Soda acid
(d) CO2
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q42
What takes place at the session layer? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Packet sequencing
(b) Routing
(c) Addressing
(d) Dialog control
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q43
How is single loss expectancy (SLE) calculated? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) X exposure factor
(b) Asset value X exposure factor
(c) Annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) X asset value
(d) Asset value X asset loss expectancy (ALE)
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q44
A prolonged power supply that is below normal voltage is a _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) brownout
(b) surge
(c) blackout
(d) fault
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q45
____________ is the means by which the ability to do something with a computer resource is explicitly enabled or restricted. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) System Resources
(b) Accesses Control
(c) Type Of Accesses
(d) Work Permit
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q46
If an access control has a fail-safe characteristic but not a fail-secure characteristic, what does that mean? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) It defaults to being locked.
(b) It defaults to sounding a remote alarm instead of a local alarm.
(c) It defaults to no access.
(d) It defaults to being unlocked.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q47
A deviation from an organization-wide security policy requires which of the following? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Risk containment
(b) Risk reduction
(c) Risk assignment
(d) Risk acceptance
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q48
What do you think the application should do when it fails? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It should stop and mark as bad application.
(b) It should go directly to a secure state.
(c) It should be still active, so to track the attacker when he jumps in and uses it.
(d) It should stop and restart automatically.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q49
SYN flood attack is what kind of attack? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Dictionary attack
(b) Brute force attack
(c) Heart attack
(d) Denial of service attack
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q50
The preliminary steps to security planning include all of the following EXCEPT _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) establish objectives
(b) establish a security audit function
(c) list planning assumptions
(d) determine alternate courses of action
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q51
What is the disadvantage of risk assessment technique? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It takes a considerable amount of time.
(b) It takes lots of man power.
(c) It is expensive
(d) It disrupts the work flow of the company.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q52
Which of the following is NOT a system-sensing wireless proximity card? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Passive device
(b) Field-powered device
(c) Transponder
(d) Magnetically striped card
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q53
In client browser and sever communication, data is passed in form of _______ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Cookies
(b) Viruses
(c) Applets
(d) ActiveX
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q54
Why is user education helpful for portable computing? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) To make the users aware of the threats to company shared resources.
(b) To train the users so as to make them more efficient while using company's resources.
(c) To provide users with remote and mobile computing education.
(d) To train users before allowing them to access these portable computers.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q55
How do you explain Risk Management? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The process which involves identifying, controlling and eliminating the security risks.
(b) The process which involves implementing, developing and mitigating security risks.
(c) The process which involves isolating, combining and eliminating the security risks.
(d) None of above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q56
What do incident logs provide? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) A good insight into the vulnerabilities of a system.
(b) Throw new challenges to the security professionals.
(c) List of assets and their owners.
(d) Location of the assets.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q57
Signs, lighting, environmental design are employed for what kind of control? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) preventive
(b) access
(c) deterrent
(d) administrative
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q58
The business processes can be affected by __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) disgruntled employees
(b) industrial espionage
(c) hackers
(d) all of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q59
How do we better understand policy? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It is a statement of the goals to be achieved by procedures.
(b) It is a statement of the goals to be achieved by guidelines.
(c) It is a statement of the goals to be achieved by baselines.
(d) It is a statement of the goals to be achieved by standards
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q60
Which of the following protocols is considered connection oriented? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) IP
(b) TCP
(c) ICMP
(d) UDP
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q61
What is the best description of CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol)? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Password not sent in clear text.
(b) It is substandard to PAP.
(c) Passwords are sent in clear text.
(d) Passwords are not used, a digital signature is used.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q62
In this information age, which is the most vulnerable asset of an organization? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Employees
(b) Data
(c) Machinery
(d) Finance
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q63
What kind of device requires user to supply user Id plus password plus token and something more? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Biometric
(b) Smart cards
(c) Dumb cards
(d) Challenge-response token
(e) I am not attempting the questions

Q64
Which of the following is not a purpose of doing a risk analysis? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Define the balance between the impact of a risk and the cost of the necessary counter measure
(b) Identify risks
(c) Delegate responsibility
(d) Quantify impact of potential threats
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q65
Which one of the following individuals has PRIMARY responsibility for determining the classification level of information? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Security manager
(b) Owner
(c) User
(d) Auditor
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q66
When security is a high priority, why is fiber cabling used? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It has high data transfer rates and is less vulnerable to EMI
(b) It multiplexes data, which can confuse attackers.
(c) Data interception is very difficult.
(d) It has a high degree of data detection and correction.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q67
Which of this is a best definition for socket? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) An IP address and MAC address
(b) A session layer link.
(c) An IP address and port number.
(d) MAC address and port number.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q68
Devices that supply power when the commercial utility power system fails are called ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) uninterruptible power supplies
(b) power conditioners
(c) power filters
(d) power dividers
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q69
What attack is typically used for identifying the topology of the target network? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Assessing
(b) Scanning
(c) Printing
(d) Porting
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q70
Under MAC, a clearance is a ______________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) subject
(b) sensitivity
(c) privilege
(d) object
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q71
Policies are not written to affect ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) software access
(b) hardware
(c) outside entities
(d) networks
(e) I am not attempting this questions

Q72
Qualitative risk analysis _____________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) focuses on the costs of potential losses
(b) aims to analyze numerically the probability of each risk
(c) uses judgment and intuition instead of numbers
(d) focuses on the costs of mitigating
(e) I am not attempting this questions

Q73
In proximity identification system what do you understand by the term 'user activated'? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) User and system are independent of activation.
(b) System is activated mutually by the user and system.
(c) Action needs to be taken by the system.
(d) Action needs to be taken by a user
(e) I am not attempting this questions

Q74
Which of the following best describes a characteristic of IPsec? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Provides content filtering
(b) Works as a proxy.
(c) Provides application layer protection.
(d) Provides system authentication.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q75
UDP provides __________ delivery. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) distributed
(b) connection-oriented
(c) best-efficiency
(d) best effort
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q76
What is BS ISO/IEC 27001? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Standard that provides a framework for computer to computer communication
(b) Standard that provides a specification for handling various controls in BCP
(c) International standard that provides a specification for security infrastructure
(d) New international standard that provides a specification for ISMS and the foundation for third-party audit and certification
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q77
Database views provide what type of security control? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Administrative
(b) Corrective
(c) Detective
(d) Preventive
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q78
How does data encapsulation and the protocol stack work? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Each protocol or service at each layer in the OSI model adds its own information to the data as it is passed down the protocol stack
(b) The packet is encapsulated and grows when it is passed up the protocol stack
(c) Each protocol or service at each layer in the OSI model multiplexes other packets to the data as it is passed down the protocol stack
(d) The packet is encapsulated and grows as it hops from router to router
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q79
Which software development model is actually a Meta model that incorporates a number of software development models? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The Critical Path Model
(b) The modified Waterfall Model
(c) The Waterfall Model
(d) The Spiral Model
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q80
___________ best suits for theft protection on portable computers. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Store all the data in password protected drives on portable computer
(b) Remove power supply batteries from the computer when in non-operational mode
(c) Should have a logon before gaining access to the resources
(d) Allow the computer to continue running when unattended
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q81
Before writing a security policy what concerns the security analyst? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) How large is the organization's infrastructure
(b) What is the annual turnover or revenues of an organization
(c) Which systems and processes are important to the company's mission
(d) The total number of employees working in an organization.
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q82
Which of the following is an administrative control for physical security? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Lighting
(b) Fences
(c) Facility construction material
(d) Training
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q83
A system file that has been patched numerous times becomes infected with a virus. The anti-virus software warns that disinfecting the file may damage it. What course of action should be taken? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Replace the file with the original version from master media.
(b) Proceed with automated disinfections
(c) Research the virus to see if it is benign
(d) Restore an uninfected version of the patched file from backup media
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q84
A risk assessment approach must fulfill which criteria? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Identifying the impacts of losses of confidentiality, integrity and availability might have on the assets.
(b) Identifying the threats and vulnerabilities, and any other applicable security requirements.
(c) Identify the assets and owners of these assets.
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q85
Which of the following best allows risk management results to be used knowledgeably? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) A likelihood assessment
(b) An uncertainty analysis
(c) A threat identification
(d) A vulnerability analysis
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q86
Which of the following is currently the most recommended water system for a computer room? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Deluge
(b) Preaction
(c) Dry pipe
(d) Wet pipe
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q87
Which type of control is concerned with avoiding occurrences of risks? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Preventive controls
(b) Detective controls
(c) Deterrent controls
(d) Compensating controls
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q88
Which among these is a risk assessing technique? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Compound
(b) Aggregate
(c) Monetary
(d) Basic
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q89
Which of the following is the backdoor to an application created by a developer? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Trap Door
(b) Easter egg
(c) Trojan Horse
(d) Loop Hole
(e) I am not attempting this question

Q90
The estimated life time of a device or the estimated timeframe until a component within a device gives out is called ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) MTBF
(b) MTTR
(c) UPS
(d) MTTB
(e) I am not attempting this question.

NCFM Compliance Officers (Corporates) Module mock test questions

Compliance Officers (Corporates) Module

Q1
Which of the following committees is non-mandatory to be constituted by listed company?
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) Share Transfer Committee
(b) Shareholders/Investors Grievance Committee
(c) Remuneration Committee
(d) Audit Committee
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q2
State which of the following is false? As per the Chapter XI of the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 specifying the Guidelines for Book Building an issuer company may make an issue of securities to the public through prospectus in the following manner: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 100% of the net offer to the public
(b) 100% of the net offer to the public through book building process
(c) 75% of the net offer to the public through book building process and 25% at the price
determined through book building
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q3
In case of default in repayment to small depositors, intimation of such fact should be given within ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 60 days from the date of default
(b) three months from the date of default
(c) 15 days from the date of default
(d) one month from the date of default
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q4
State which of the following is false? As per Chapter X of the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 stating the Guidelines for issue of debt instruments, in case of PCDs/NCDs the offer document shall contain ________________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) premium on redemption
(b) premium on redemption and Yield on redemption of the PCDs/NCDs
(c) period of maturity
(d) redemption amount
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q5
As per the SEBI (ESOS and ESPS) Guidelines 1999, ______________________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) an employee who is a promoter or belongs to the promoter group shall not be eligible to
participate in the ESPS
(b) an employee who is promoter shall be eligible to participate in the ESPS
(c) an employee who belongs to the promoter group shall be eligible to participate in the ESPS
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q6
As per the SEBI (ESOS and ESPS) Guidelines 1999 state which of the following is false? The Board of Directors shall disclose in the Director's Report the following details of the ESPS: [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Diluted earnings per share
(b) Earnings per share
(c) Price at which the shares are issued
(d) Number of shares issued in ESPS
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q7
Division of capital is subject to the approval by the Tribunal. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) FALSE
(b) TRUE
(c) I am not attempting the question

Q8
As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997, for offers which are subject to the minimum level of acceptance and the acquirer does not want to acquire a minimum of 20%, the following percentage of the consideration payable under the public offer in cash shall be deposited in the escrow account: [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 90%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 50%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9
In response to the notice of removal of Mr. D, director of Company X Ltd., he sent a representation. His representation could not be sent alongwith the notice of the Annual General Meeting for want of time. Resolution for his removal was passed at that meeting. Mr. D contended that since his representation was not forwarded to all memers and directors, resolution for his removal stands invalid. Is his contention valid? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Yes, received late is no ground.
(b) No, as it was received late.
(c) I am not attempting the question

Q10
State which of the following is False? The Guidelines for Preferential Issues in the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 is applicable to __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) All types of financial instruments
(b) All financial instruments which would be converted into equity shares at later date
(c) All financial instruments which would be exchanged into equity shares at later date
(d) All equity shares
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q11
As per the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000, for raising of funds through public issues, the due date for the final post issue monitoring report for all issues shall be ____________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 3rd day from the date of listing or 80 days from the date of closure of the subscription
of the issue whichever is earlier
(b) 3rd day from the date of listing or 50 days from the date of closure of the subscription
of the issue whichever is earlier
(c) 3rd day from the date of listing or 75 days from the date of closure of the subscription
of the issue whichever is earlier
(d) 3rd day from the date of listing or 78 days from the date of closure of the subscription
of the issue whichever is earlier
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q12
A shareholder, Mr. P, holding 550 shares of listed company makes an application to the company for sub-division of its shares. The company charges certain fees from Mr. P. State whether the action of the company is correct? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Yes, only if the fees are as agreed with the Stock Exchange.
(d) Yes, only if the fees are as agreed by the member.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q13
Omission to send notice of annual General Meeting to member invalidates the resolution passed in that meeting. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) FALSE
(b) TRUE
(c) I am not attempting the question

Q14
As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997, any person other than an acquirer who has made the first public announcement, shall make a competitive bid within _______. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 45 days of the public announcement of the first offer
(b) 21 days of the public announcement of the first offer
(c) 30 days of the public announcement of the first offer
(d) 14 days of the public announcement of the first offer
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15
The main object of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act 1956 is _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) to protect the interest of the investors and promote and develop the securities market
(b) to control the monopolistic and restrictive trade practices followed by the listed companies
(c) to consolidate and amend the law relating to companies and certain other associations
(d) to prevent undesirable transactions in securities by regulating the business of dealing therein
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16
Board of directors may give guarantee without being previously authorised by way of special resolution if ______________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) it has been approved by unanimous resolution of the board
(b) it has been approved by the Central Government
(c) it has been approved within six months
(d) it has been approved within twelve months in general meeting
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q17
Contracts entered into by the company before commencement of business are __________.
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) valid
(b) voidable
(c) void
(d) not binding till date of commencement
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q18
As per the SEBI (ESOS and ESPS) Guidelines 1999, the amount payable by the employee, if any, at the time of grant of option ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) may be refunded by the company if the option is not exercised by the employee
within the exercise period
(b) may be retained by the company in suspense account if the option is not exercised
by the employee within the exercise period
(c) may be forfeited by the company if the option is not exercised
by the employee within the exercise period
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q19
As per Chapter X of the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 stating the Guidelines for issue of debt instruments, where the company desires to rollover the debentures issued by it, it shall file ____________, a copy of the notice of the resolution, to be sent to the debenture-holders for the purpose, through merchant banker, prior to dispatching the same to the debenture-holders.
[ 1 Mark ]

(a) with SEBI
(b) with Registrar of Companies
(c) with Debenture Trustees
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q20
As per Chapter X of the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 specifying the guidelines for issue of capital by Designated Financial Institutions (DFIs), if a DFI fails to meet the criteria of maintenance of Debt - Equity ratio (DER) and Notional Debt Service Coverage Ratio (NDSCR), no dividend shall be declared by such DFI for the relevant year except with the approval of the trustees and the rate of dividend shall not exceed ____________.
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q21
Notice of meeting of annual General Meeting need not be issued to the auditor of the company.
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) TRUE
(b) FALSE
(c) I am not attempting the question

Q22
As per the Guidelines for Preferential Issues in the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000, the details of unutilised monies shall be disclosed out of the preferential issue proceeds _____________.
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) under the head sources of funds
(b) need not be disclosed
(c) under separate head in the balance sheet
(d) as per Schedule VI of the Companies Act 1956
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q23
As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997, SEBI shall forward the application of exemption to the Takeover Panel within __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 15 days of the receipt of the application
(b) 10 days of the receipt of the application
(c) 5 days of the receipt of the application
(d) 20 days of the receipt of the application
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q24
The resolution to be passed, in terms of section 81(1A) with respect to pricing of shares arising out of warrants etc., as per the Guidelines for referential Issues in the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000, is required to clearly specify __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the specified date
(b) the date of the resolution
(c) the relevant date
(d) the date on which the holder of warrants is entitled to apply for the shares
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q25
What are the functions to be performed by the chairman of the Audit Committee to comply with the provisions of the listing agreement? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) To be present at the Board meeting where the minutes of the Audit committee are placed for
approval.
(b) To be an independent director and to be present at the Annual General meeting.
(c) To carry out audit of auditors.
(d) I am not attempting the question

Q26
The information about the transfer of securities in the name of the beneficial owners has to be furnished ______________.
[ 1 Mark ]

(a) by the depository to the beneficial owner
(b) by the depository to the issuer
(c) by the beneficial owner to the depository
(d) by the issuer to the depository
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q27
From the below mentioned persons, who can become independent director of Tamarind Ltd?
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) Mr. Lakshman, as he holds 1.5% of the equity shares of the company having voting rights.
(b) Mr. Ghanshyam, as he is supplier of the company's major raw material.
(c) Mr. Shyam, as he is an executive of the company for last 5 financial years.
(d) Mr. Ram, as he is Executive Director of Tamarind Ltd.'s subsidiary.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q28
A listed company is required to send statement to the Stock Exchange explaining the reasons to the Stock Exchange along with the Review Report in the following case: [ 2 Marks ]

(a) No statement is required to be send.
(b) If there has been delay in sending the Review Report.
(c) If the Review Report has certain qualifications or adverse remarks by the Auditors.
(d) If any item in the quarterly unaudited results varies by 20% or more from the respective
half yearly results.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q29
As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997 with respect to bailout takeovers, the company being taken over shall be appraised taking into account the _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Financial viability
(b) Technical viability
(c) None of the above
(d) I am not attempting the question

Q30
State which of the following is false? As per the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000, for raising of funds through public issues, the lead merchant banker shall ensure that the following are complied with in the research reports ___________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) risk factors are not reproduced
(b) research report is based on the published information contained in the offer document
(c) advertisement code is observed
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q31
State which of the following is True? The Compensation Committee with respect to ESOS shall frame suitable policies and systems to ensure that there is no violation of __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) SEBI (Issue of Sweat Equity) Regulations 2002
(b) SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations 1992
(c) SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations 1997
(d) SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations 1992
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q32
As per the Guidelines on Initial Public Offers through the Stock Exchange on-line system in the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000, the Registrar to the Issue having electronic connectivity with the Stock Exchange through which the securities are offered under the system shall be appointed by _____________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) The Lead Manager
(b) The Stock Exchange
(c) The Merchant Banker
(d) The Company
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q33
Which of the following term is defined under the Depository Act 1996? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Record
(b) Certificate
(c) Scheme
(d) Contract
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q34
As per the Guidelines for Preferential Issues in the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 in case of allotment of shares and securities convertible into equity shares at later date on preferential basis pursuant to scheme of corporate debt restructuring as per the Corporate Debt Restructuring framework specified by the Reserve Bank of India such preferential issues shall be made fully paid up _________.
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) at the date of the resolution
(b) at the time of their allotment
(c) at the time of their issue
(d) the guidelines do not apply
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q35
As per the Guidelines for Preferential Issues in the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 the details of all monies utilised out of the preferential issue proceeds shall be disclosed ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) under an appropriate head in the balance sheet of the company
(b) under the head application of funds
(c) need not be disclosed
(d) as per Schedule VI of the Companies Act 1956
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q36
In case of public company member can appoint only one proxy. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) FALSE
(b) TRUE
(c) I am not attempting the question

Q37
As per the SEBI (ESOS and ESPS) Guidelines 1999, the expected life of ESOSs should not be less than _______________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) quarter of the exercise period of the ESOSs issued
(b) three-quarters of the exercise period of the ESOSs issued
(c) one and half of the exercise period of the ESOSs issued
(d) half of the exercise period of the ESOSs issued
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q38
Securities Appellate Tribunal SAT means ___________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) SAT established under Section 23 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act 1956
(b) SAT established under Section 15K of the SEBI Act 1992
(c) SAT established under Section 22 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act 1956
(d) SAT established under Section 15K of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act 1956
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q39
As per Chapter X of the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 stating the Guidelines for issue of debt instruments, redemption of debentures shall be made by the issuer company ___________.
[ 1 Mark ]

(a) as per the decision of the Debenture Trustee
(b) as per the offer document
(c) as per the debenture trust deed
(d) as per the decision of the issuer company
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q40
One of the powers of the SAT is __________. (Strike off the odd one) [ 2 Marks ]

(a) delist the securities of any company from the Recognised Stock Exchange
(b) review its decisions
(c) receive evidence on affidavits
(d) issuing Commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q41
As per Chapter X of the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 specifying the guidelines for issue of capital by Designated Financial Institutions (DFIs), the name of the trustee / agent shall be stated in the offer document and the trust deed or any other documents for the purpose shall be executed ____________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) within two months of the closure of the issue
(b) within four months of the closure of the issue
(c) within three months of the closure of the issue
(d) within six months of the closure of the issue
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q42
As per Chapter X of the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 specifying the guidelines for issue of capital by Designated Financial Institutions (DFIs), the maximum target amount specified in the prospectus shall not exceed __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) four times the minimum target amount
(b) thrice the minimum target amount
(c) twice the minimum target amount
(d) five times the minimum target amount
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q43
State which of the following is false? As per the Chapter XI of the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 specifying the Guidelines for Book Building, the advertisement shall contain the following: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The names and addresses of the syndicate members as well as the bidding terminals for
accepting the bids.
(b) The method and process of bidding.
(c) The net offer to the public.
(d) The date of opening and closing of the bidding.
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q44
The concerned Recognised Stock Exchange shall lose its recognition if ________. (Select the odd one) [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the scheme of corporatisation and demutualisation has been rejected
(b) it fails to submit the scheme of corporatisation or demutualization
(c) SEBI so publishes order in the Official Gazette
(d) it has not been corporatised or demutualised
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q45
As per the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000, for raising of funds through public issues, ensuring that the basis of allotment is finalized in fair and proper manner is the responsibility of the ____________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Managing Director of the Designated Stock Exchange
(b) Bankers to the issue
(c) SEBI
(d) Brokers to the issue
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q46
As per Clause 42 of the listing agreement, state whether any condition precedent is required to be complied by a listed company for issue of new securities? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Yes, to deposit with the Stock Exchange the prescribed amount, before opening the
subscription list.
(b) None
(c) Yes, to promptly notify the Stock Exchange.
(d) I am not attempting the question

Q47
The Court shall take cognizance of the offence punishable under the Depository Act 1996 on complaint made by ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Central Government
(b) SEBI
(c) State Government
(d) Any of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q48
As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997, no acquirer shall acquire shares or voting rights, through market purchases and preferential allotment pursuant to a resolution passed under section 81 of the Companies Act, 1956 or any other applicable law, which (taken together with shares or voting rights, if any, held by him or by persons acting in concert with him), entitle such acquirer to exercise more than ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) fifty five per cent of the voting rights in the company
(b) fifty four per cent of the voting rights in the company
(c) seventy four per cent of the voting rights in the company
(d) fourteen per cent of the voting rights in the company
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q49
State which of the following is true? As per the Chapter XI of the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 specifying the Guidelines for Book Building, _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the book runner is required to enter into an underwriting agreement with the issuer company
(b) the book runner is required to enter into an underwriting agreement with SEBI
(c) the book runner is required to enter into an underwriting agreement with Stock Exchange
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q50
As per the listing agreement, the Chairman of which Committees should be present at the Annual General meetings of the company? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Remuneration Committee
(b) Audit Committee and Remuneration Committee
(c) Shareholders Grievance Committee
(d) Only Audit Committee
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q51
Every recognised stock exchange shall furnish copy of Annual Report to ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) SEBI and Central Government
(b) SEBI
(c) Central Government
(d) State Government
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q52
Recognised Stock Exchange may make rules or amend rules to provide for the following matters: (Select the odd one) [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Restriction of voting rights to members only in respect of the matter placed before the
Stock Exchange at any meeting
(b) Regulation of voting rights in respect of any matter placed before the stock exchange at any
meeting
(c) Restriction on the right of member to appoint another person as his proxy to attend and vote
at meeting of the stock exchange
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q53
Who has been authorised under the Depository Act 1996 to make Rules? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Securities Appellate Tribunal
(b) Central Government
(c) SEBI
(d) Depositories
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q54
As per the Guidelines for Preferential Issues in the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000 locked in shares/instruments may be transferred __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) subject to continuation of lock-in, in the hands of transferee(s) for the remaining period
(b) subject to continuation of lock-in in the hands of transferee(s) for one year
(c) subject to continuation of lock-in in the hands of transferee(s) for four years
(d) subject to continuation of lock-in in the hands of transferee(s) for three years
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q55
State which of the following is false? As per the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000, for raising of funds through public issues, any unsubscribed portion in any reserved category ___________.
[ 2 Marks ]

(a) may not be added back to any other reserved category
(b) may be added back to the net offer to the public
(c) may be added back to any other reserved category
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q56
As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997, any person aggrieved by an order of SEBI may prefer an appeal to ______. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Securities Appellate Tribunal
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q57
For implementation of ESOS and ESPS as per the SEBI (ESOS and ESPS) Guidelines 1999, till the stage of framing the ESOS/ESPS and obtaining the in-principal approval from the stock exchange the company shall appoint a ______________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) registered banker
(b) registered merchant banker
(c) registered stock broker
(d) registered portfolio manager
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q58
State which of the following is false? As per the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000, for raising of funds through public issues 'Qualified Institutional Buyer' shall mean ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) provident funds with minimum corpus of Rs. 15 crores
(b) scheduled commercial banks
(c) mutual funds
(d) public financial institution as defined in section 4 of the Companies Act 1956
(e) I am not attempting the question

Q59
Alongwith the quarterly unaudited financial results the company is required to publish segment wise revenue results and capital employed. In case of segment operations which are primarily of financial nature in such segment results indicate ____________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) profit/loss after tax and after interest and the interest shall not include the interest pertaining
to such segment
(b) profit/loss before tax and after interest and the interest shall not include the interest
pertaining to such segment
(c) profit/loss before tax and interest and the interest shall not include the interest pertaining to
such segment
(d) I am not attempting the question

Q60
As per the SEBI (DIP) Guidelines 2000, for raising of funds through public issues the outstanding underwriting commitments of merchant banker shall not exceed ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 30 times its net worth at any point of time
(b) 25 times its net worth at any point of time
(c) 20 times its net worth at any point of time
(d) 10 times its net worth at any point of time
(e) I am not attempting the question

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Tips For Maximum Adsense Content Relevancy

Tips For Maximum Adsense Content Relevancy
One of the most essential aspects of getting the most out of your involvement with Google’s Adsense program is to be certain that Google serves up the most relevant ads possible on your site. The concept is easy to grasp--visitors travel to your sites in search of certain content on their topic of interest. If they see advertisements directly related to those content desires, they are far more likely to click on the ads than if they encounter only tangentially related material or, in a worst case scenario, ads that are not even related to their interests. As such, it is in your best interests to make sure your site displays relevant ads. Here are few tips for improving your content relevancy to produce more accurately targeted contextual advertising from Adsense.

FIRST THINGS FIRST. Before you even begin to use Adsense as a monetization tool, make sure there are relevant ads for your site or pages. In most cases, you will have determined this long before you even embarked on site design or content development. However, if you are thinking of adding Adsense to an existing site built with other monetization strategies originally in mind, you may not have bothered checking to see if other advertisers were going after that particular market. Be sure you are addressing a topic for which ads exist in sufficient quantity. If related advertising is sparse, it will difficult to avoid irrelevant ads.

KEYWORDS MATTER. You do not want content that is overstuffed with particular keywords to point of destroying readability and value, but you do want to make sure your materials make liberal use of on-topic keywords likely to spawn the most relevant possible ads. Experts maintain that using keywords with your titles and H1 tags is an excellent way to assist in getting the most relevant possible ads. This has added advantages in terms of search engine optimization, as well.

METATAGS. Once upon a time, metatags were a critical aspect of search engine optimization in general. Although the engines rely upon metatags far less than they once did, there is some evidence to suggest that using ad-triggering keywords in your pages’ meta-tags may increase the relevance of the advertisements displayed. This strategy may help, and it certainly cannot hurt.

LOOK FOR LACKLUSTER CONTENT. Many sites to a great job of supplying content related to particular themes or keywords in the main portion of a page, but have sidebars, headers and footers filled with less targeted terms and material. Take a long look at your navigational elements and other “side of the page?? text and remove keyword terminology that may be leading to irrelevant ad service. Alternatively, you can use Adsense’s section targeting tool to remove those areas from Adsense’s consideration completely, so long as you do not plan to display ad blocks or ad link units in those areas.

TIGHT THEMING. You want to keep content tightly themed. That means you do not want to feature long, rambling articles that cover multiple topics. Instead, rely upon materials that address singular issues. You also do not want to feature multiple chunks of content on disparate matters on the same page for that very same reason. The value of tight theming may extend past individual pages. Many publishers argue that Adsense tends to reward tightly-themed overall sites with more relevant ads, as well. Even though this aspect of theming is not as well researched and proven, it makes sense to follow the practice, because of the search engine optimization advantages of having a focused site.

BLOCK THE BAD ADS. Monitor your site regularly and take note when irrelevant ads appear. Then, take the time to add them to your blacklist for the site. Google does give you the ability to block individual ads via the Competitive Ad Filter. If you block out commonly served irrelevant ads, you may improve your chances of featuring more ads upon which your visitors will actually click.

The more contextually relevant the ads appearing on your site are, the more clicks you can expect to see. As such, it is important to make an effort to use a combination of proven SEO methods that also work well with Adsense and some program-specific maneuvers to secure the best possible ads on your site.

SQL Script to enable and disable Constraints in any schema owner or user of Oracle Databse

Prompt Enter Owner:
ACCEPT i_owner;

Prompt Enter TABLE_NAME:
ACCEPT i_tab_name;

Prompt Enter Column_name:
ACCEPT i_col_name;

Prompt Enter Constraint_Type (U -UNIQUE, N-not null , P - PRIMARY KEY, R-Reference, C-CHECK) :
ACCEPT i_cons_type;

Prompt Do you want ENABLE(Y) OR DISABLE (N) the constraint ?
ACCEPT i_enable_disable;

Prompt Do you want VALIDATE (Y) OR NOVALIDATE (N) Clause ?
ACCEPT i_validate;

DECLARE
BEGIN
EXECUTE Immediate ' Drop table LONG_TEST';
EXCEPTION
WHEN OTHERS THEN
NULL;
END;
/

SQL Script and Package Body to convert Report to Excel

PACKAGE RPT2XLS IS
-- Font style constants
BOLD constant binary_integer := 1;
ITALIC constant binary_integer := 2;
UNDERLINE constant binary_integer := 4;

-- Horizontal alignment constants
SUBTYPE xlHAlign IS binary_integer;
CENTER CONSTANT xlHAlign := -4108;
CENTERACROSSSELECTION CONSTANT xlHAlign := 7;
DISTRIBUTED CONSTANT xlHAlign := -4117;
FILL CONSTANT xlHAlign := 5;
GENERAL CONSTANT xlHAlign := 1;
JUSTIFY CONSTANT xlHAlign := -4130;
LEFT CONSTANT xlHAlign := -4131;
RIGHT CONSTANT xlHAlign := -4152;

PROCEDURE put_cell(ColNo binary_integer, CellValue in varchar2,
FontName in varchar2 DEFAULT null,
FontSize in binary_integer DEFAULT null,
FontStyle in binary_integer DEFAULT null,
FontColor in binary_integer DEFAULT null,
BgrColor in binary_integer DEFAULT null,
Format in varchar2 DEFAULT null,
Align in xlHAlign DEFAULT null
);
PROCEDURE new_line;
PROCEDURE move2Line(line in NUMBER);
PROCEDURE run;
PROCEDURE release_memory;

END;

************************------------*********************************
PACKAGE BODY RPT2XLS IS

TYPE ExcelCell IS RECORD(RowNo binary_integer,
ColNo binary_integer,
Val varchar2(2000),
FontName varchar2(20),
FontSize binary_integer,
FontStyle binary_integer,
FontColor binary_integer,
BgrColor binary_integer,
Format varchar2(60),
Align xlHAlign
);
TYPE ExcelCells IS TABLE OF ExcelCell;
Cell ExcelCells := ExcelCells();

CurrentRow binary_integer := 1;

PROCEDURE new_line IS
BEGIN
CurrentRow := CurrentRow + 1;
END;

PROCEDURE move2Line(line in NUMBER) IS
BEGIN
CurrentRow:=CurrentRow+line;
END;


PROCEDURE put_cell(ColNo binary_integer, CellValue in varchar2,
FontName in varchar2 DEFAULT null,
FontSize in binary_integer DEFAULT null,
FontStyle in binary_integer DEFAULT null,
FontColor in binary_integer DEFAULT null,
BgrColor in binary_integer DEFAULT null,
Format in varchar2 DEFAULT null,
Align in xlHAlign DEFAULT null
) IS
BEGIN
Cell.Extend;
Cell(Cell.Last).RowNo := CurrentRow;
Cell(Cell.Last).ColNo := ColNo;
Cell(Cell.Last).Val := CellValue;
Cell(Cell.Last).FontName := FontName;
Cell(Cell.Last).FontSize := FontSize;
Cell(Cell.Last).FontStyle := FontStyle;
Cell(Cell.Last).FontColor := FontColor;
Cell(Cell.Last).BgrColor := BgrColor;
Cell(Cell.Last).Format := Format;
Cell(Cell.Last).Align := Align;
END;

PROCEDURE run IS
Application OLE2.OBJ_TYPE;
Workbooks OLE2.OBJ_TYPE;
Workbook OLE2.OBJ_TYPE;
Worksheets OLE2.OBJ_TYPE;
Worksheet OLE2.OBJ_TYPE;
WorkCell OLE2.OBJ_TYPE;
WorkColumn OLE2.OBJ_TYPE;
WorkFont OLE2.OBJ_TYPE;
WorkInterior OLE2.OBJ_TYPE;
ArgList OLE2.LIST_TYPE;
BEGIN
Application := OLE2.create_obj('Excel.Application');
OLE2.set_property(Application, 'Visible', 1);
Workbooks := OLE2.get_obj_property(Application, 'Workbooks');
Workbook := OLE2.invoke_obj(WorkBooks, 'Add');
Worksheets := OLE2.get_obj_property(Workbook, 'Worksheets');
Worksheet := OLE2.get_obj_property(Application, 'ActiveSheet');

for i in Cell.First .. Cell.Last
loop
if Cell(i).Val is not null then
ArgList := OLE2.create_arglist;
OLE2.add_arg(ArgList, Cell(i).RowNo);
ole2.add_arg(ArgList, Cell(i).ColNo);
WorkCell := OLE2.get_obj_property(Worksheet, 'Cells', ArgList);
ole2.destroy_arglist(ArgList);
ole2.set_property(WorkCell, 'Value', Cell(i).Val);
ole2.set_property(WorkCell, 'NumberFormat', Cell(i).Format);

if Cell(i).Align is not null then
ole2.set_property(WorkCell, 'HorizontalAlignment', Cell(i).Align);
end if;

WorkFont := OLE2.get_obj_property(WorkCell, 'Font');
WorkInterior := ole2.Get_Obj_Property(WorkCell, 'Interior');

if Cell(i).FontName is not null then
OLE2.set_property(WorkFont, 'Name', Cell(i).FontName);
end if;
if Cell(i).FontSize is not null then
OLE2.set_property(WorkFont, 'Size', Cell(i).FontSize);
end if;
if mod(Cell(i).FontStyle, 2) = 1 then
OLE2.set_property(WorkFont, 'Bold', 1);
end if;
if mod(Cell(i).FontStyle, 4) > 2 then
OLE2.set_property(WorkFont, 'Italic', 1);
end if;
if mod(Cell(i).FontStyle, 8) > 4 then
OLE2.set_property(WorkFont, 'Underline', 2);
end if;
if Cell(i).FontColor is not null then
OLE2.set_property(WorkFont, 'ColorIndex', Cell(i).FontColor);
end if;
if Cell(i).BgrColor is not null then
OLE2.set_property(WorkInterior, 'ColorIndex', Cell(i).BgrColor);
end if;

OLE2.release_obj(WorkInterior);
OLE2.release_obj(WorkFont);
OLE2.release_obj(WorkCell);
end if;
end loop;

ArgList := ole2.create_arglist;
ole2.add_arg(ArgList, 'A:Z');
WorkColumn := ole2.Get_Obj_Property(WorkSheet, 'Columns', ArgList);
ole2.destroy_arglist(ArgList);
ole2.invoke(WorkColumn, 'AutoFit');

OLE2.release_obj(WorkColumn);
OLE2.release_obj(Worksheet);
OLE2.release_obj(Worksheets);
OLE2.release_obj(Workbook);
OLE2.release_obj(Workbooks);
OLE2.release_obj(Application);

END;

PROCEDURE release_memory IS
BEGIN
Cell := ExcelCells();
SYS.DBMS_SESSION.free_unused_user_memory;
END;


END;
/

Script to convert table data into comma delimited format

set pagesize 0
set trimspool on
set serverout on
clear buffer
undef dumpfile
undef dumptable
undef dumpowner
var maxcol number
var linelen number
var dumpfile char(40)
col column_id noprint
set pages 0 feed off termout on echo off verify off
accept dumpowner char prompt 'Owner of table to dump: '
accept dumptable char prompt 'Table to dump: '

begin
select max (column_id)
into :maxcol
from all_tab_columns
where table_name = rtrim (upper ('&dumptable')) and
owner = rtrim (upper ('&dumpowner'));

select sum (data_length) + (:maxcol * 3)
into :linelen
from all_tab_columns
where table_name = rtrim (upper ('&dumptable')) and
owner = rtrim (upper ('&dumpowner'));
end;
/

print linelen
print maxcol

SQL Script to view and count number of sessions to the database

set pages 100
set lines 3000

col machine format a25
col username format a15
col program format a25
break on 1;

set heading off;
select
'Sessions on database '|| d.name ||' having instance name '|| i.instance_name
from v$database d,v$instance i;
set heading on;

compute sum label 'Total Sessions' of sessions on 1
select
1,username,machine,program,count(*) sessions
from v$session
group by username,machine,program
order by username,sessions desc;

SQL to find Oracle Database locks

column blocker format a25
column blockee format a25
column sid_serial format a10

select
(select username || ' - ' || osuser from v$session where sid=a.sid) blocker,
a.sid || ', ' ||
(select serial# from v$session where sid=a.sid) sid_serial,
' is blocking ',
(select username || ' - ' || osuser from v$session where sid=b.sid) blockee,
b.sid || ', ' ||
(select serial# from v$session where sid=b.sid) sid_serial
from v$lock a, v$lock b
where a.block = 1
and b.request > 0
and a.id1 = b.id1
and a.id2 = b.id2;

SQL to compile invalid objects in Oracle DB after refreshing

set pagesize 0
set feedback off
set trimspool on
prompt
prompt Run the script as sysdba otherwise invalid objects will remain (ORA-01031 error)
prompt
prompt Run the script several times. It only takes long the first time
prompt
prompt check the progress of compilation by issueing from another session
prompt select count(*) "invalid" from dba_objects where status<>'VALID';
prompt
prompt hit to continue
pause
spool compile.lis
select 'alter '||object_type||' '||owner||'."'||object_name||'" compile;'
from dba_objects
where status<>'VALID'
and object_type not in ('PACKAGE BODY','TYPE BODY','UNDEFINED','JAVA CLASS','SYNONYM')
union
select 'alter package '||owner||'.'||object_name||' compile body;'
from dba_objects
where status<>'VALID'
and object_type='PACKAGE BODY'
union
select 'alter type '||owner||'.'||object_name||' compile body;'
from dba_objects
where status<>'VALID'
and object_type='TYPE BODY'
union
select 'alter materialized view '||owner||'.'||object_name||' compile;'
from dba_objects
where status<>'VALID'
and object_type='UNDEFINED'
union
select 'alter java class '||owner||'."'||object_name||'" resolve;'
from dba_objects
where status<>'VALID'
and object_type='JAVA CLASS'
union
select 'alter synonym '||owner||'.'||object_name||' compile;'
from dba_objects
where status<>'VALID'
and object_type='SYNONYM'
and owner<>'PUBLIC'
union
select 'alter public synonym '||object_name||' compile;'
from dba_objects
where status<>'VALID'
and object_type='SYNONYM'
and owner='PUBLIC';
spool off
set feedback on
@compile.lis

SQL to see the Reserved, Used and Free space of Oracle database

SELECT r.tablespace_name, reserved_space "RESERVED_SPACE(MB)",
reserved_space - free_space "USED_SPACE(MB)",
free_space "FREE_SPACE(MB)"
FROM (SELECT tablespace_name, SUM (BYTES)
/ (1024 * 1024) reserved_space
FROM dba_data_files
GROUP BY tablespace_name) r,
(SELECT tablespace_name, SUM (BYTES) / (1024 * 1024) free_space
FROM dba_free_space
GROUP BY tablespace_name) f
WHERE r.tablespace_name = f.tablespace_name
ORDER BY r.tablespace_name;

Procedure To ENABLE and DISABLE Triggers on a Schema level

CREATE or replace procedure enable_triggers as
v_tablename varchar2(100);
v_query1 varchar2(100);
v_query2 varchar2(100);
v_query varchar2(100);

-- A cursor is used to fetch all the Tables in the Schema
cursor v_cursor is
select table_name from User_tables;

v_row v_cursor%rowtype;

begin

open v_cursor;
loop
fetch v_cursor into v_row;
if v_cursor%notfound then
exit;
end if;

v_tablename := v_row.table_name;

v_query1:=\'alter table\';

-- For disabling the triggers on the tables ,
-- the following line can be changed as \" v_query2:=\'disable all triggers\';\"
v_query2:=\'enable all triggers\';
v_query:=v_query1||\' \'||v_tablename||\' \'||v_query2;
dbms_output.put_line(v_query);
execute immediate ( v_query);

end loop;

close v_cursor;
end;
/


--- Execute the Procedure ------
EXECUTE ENABLE_TRIGGERS;

BULK COLLECT and BULK BIND sample program in Oracle

set serveroutput on size 50000

DECLARE
CURSOR emp_cur IS SELECT * FROM EMP;

TYPE emp_tab_t IS TABLE OF emp%ROWTYPE INDEX BY BINARY_INTEGER;
emp_tab emp_tab_t; -- In-memory table

rows NATURAL := 10000; -- Number of rows to process at a time
i BINARY_INTEGER := 0;
BEGIN
OPEN emp_cur;
LOOP
-- Bulk collect data into memory table - X rows at a time
FETCH emp_cur BULK COLLECT INTO emp_tab LIMIT rows;
EXIT WHEN emp_tab.COUNT = 0;

DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE( TO_CHAR(emp_tab.COUNT)|| ' rows bulk fetched.');

FOR i IN emp_tab.FIRST .. emp_tab.LAST loop
-- Manipumate data in the memory table...
dbms_output.put_line('i = '||i||', EmpName='||emp_tab(i).ename);
END LOOP;

-- Bulk bind of data in memory table...
FORALL i in emp_tab.FIRST..emp_tab.LAST
INSERT /*+APPEND*/ INTO emp2 VALUES emp_tab(i);

END LOOP;
CLOSE emp_cur;
END;
/

What is a Unit Test and Why Unit Test?

What is a Unit Test?

A unit test is a test of the correctness of an individual code module, for example, a test of a method or class. Typically, developers create unit tests for their code as they develop it. A typical unit test is a method that executes the method that it tests and verifies that the method generates the correct output for a given set of inputs.
Unit tests differ from integration tests. Integration tests verify the correctness of the interaction of a set of code modules. Unit tests verify only the correctness of a code module in isolation. Integration tests of a set of code modules could fail even though each module passes its unit tests.

Why Unit Test?

Unit testing offers a number of benefits including:
Providing verification that a code module is correct. This is the principal motivation for unit testing.
Providing automatic regression testing. Unit tests should be re-run after changes to a code module to ensure that code module is still correct. That is, unit tests should be used to ensure that changes have not broken a code module. Ideally, the unit tests for all code modules should be run after a change to any one module.
Providing documentation. Frequently, the unit tests of a code module are delivered together with the code module. Examining the unit tests provides a great deal of information about how a code module functions.

Track your income tax refund status online now:

Track your tax refund status online now:

Please enter your Permanent Account Number and Assessment Year for which status of refund is to be tracked.
Taxpayers will get status of refund 10 days after the refund has been sent by their Assessing Officer for refund banker. Status will be available only for those taxpayers whose refunds are to go through refund banker pilot scheme.


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ETL: Extract, Transform and Load acronyms used

ETL stands for extract transform load. It may refer to the process of migrating data from one source to another, or it may refer to a piece of software that does the job.
Datawarehousing specialists use ETL tools to move a subset of data from a larger data silo to a smaller one (say, a data mart). Extract means that only certain records might be selected. Transform means that the data might be altered and tidied up along the way (as complicated as normalising a flat file into a relational format, or as simple as changing dates from Julian to Gregorian). Load means that the data is created in a new source, along with any necessary dependencies, primary keys, indexes or whatever a target platform requires of its tables.

ETL is a good example of an acronym for a process so simple that you didn't even think it warrented an acronym, so without even knowing what ETL means you think you are incapable of taking up work that demands ETL experience. Theoretically you can claim burning CDs as managing an ETL operation.

ETL
An acronym standing for Extract, Transform and Load. Sometimes extended with a C for Cleanse (ECTL).

Usually used in the context of Data Warehousing to refer to a software tool that is employed to move large amounts of data from one database to another, such as from a DB2 database on a mainframe to an Oracle database on a midrange server. The tool's use is not limited to data warehousing only.

ETL popped up about 1988 with Prism III, a COBOL code generator with interfaces to several popular database engines of the time. Back then, they were known as Data Integration Tools. Later, Informatica, Ab Initio, Datastage, and other tools became available.

The basic functions required of an ETL tool are: a database interface, a mapping facility, and a transformation facility.

The earliest ETL tools (now called First-Generation) were code generators, that is, the ETL developer would enter information about the source of the data, the transformations required, the mapping of the source columns to the target columns, and then the tool would take that info and create programs that would then be executed to do the work.

The newest tools divide between doing some generation of code, and simply entering configurations for a standard engine. Informatica takes the standard engine approach and saves all of its configurations in a database, such as Oracle. AbInitio takes more of a generation approach, and generates Korn shell script that strings modules of code together, saving the conigurations in a proprietary format.

The transformation part of the equation is usually accomplished through the input of some kind of code by the ETL programmer. For Informatica, the code consists of SQL extended by procedural commands and calls to functions. For Ab Initio, the code is much more like the programming language "C".

Mapping consists of making logical connections between physical data, usually between columns in files, or columns in database tables. Most tools allow you to click and drag to draw lines between data entities. ETI Extract worked along these lines, like a HIPO or Hierarchical Input Process Output diagram, with a list of input columns along the left side of the screen, and output columns along the right. The lines across the middle were clicked on and transformation logic could be entered at that point. Informatica takes a more ERD or Entity Relationship Diagram approach, where the connections are between boxes on the screen, and the columns are represented as ports on the boxes. The transformations occur inside some of the boxes.

Finally, Extraction is most often accomplished through SQL or Structured Query Language, the interface usually provided to most modern Databases.

DBMS, RDBMS and ORDBMS w.r.t. Oracle

Now the trends of database programming are going towards ORDBMS. OODBMS is not to much matures for all the database activities in today's enterprise houses.
DBMS, RDBMS and ORDBMS w.r.t. Oracle

The DLF Indian Premier League

The DLF Indian Premier League :

Players and teams Participating in DLF Indian Premier League:

Chennai Super Kings Players :

Mahendra Singh Dhoni
Viraj Vilas Kadbe
Palani Amarnath
Manpreet Gony
Srikkanth Anirudha
R Ashwin
Napoleon Einstein
Stephen Fleming
Kepler Wessels (Coach)
Subramaniam Badrinath
Lakshmipathy Balaji
Matthew Hayden
Michael Hussey
Shadab Jakati
Joginder Sharma
Arun Karthik
Suresh Kumar
Albie Morkel
Abhinav Mukund
Makhaya Ntini
Jacob Oram
Parthiv Patel (wk)
Suresh Raina
Muttiah Muralitharan
Vidyut Sivaramakrishnan


Deccan Chargers Players :

VVS Laxman
Sanjay Bangar
Halhadar Das (wk)
Herschelle Gibbs
Scott Styris
D Kalyankrishna
Adam Gilchrist (wk)
Pragyan Ojha
Dwaraka Ravi Teja
PM Sarvesh Kumar
Shahid Afridi
Rohit Sharma
RP Singh
Chamara Silva
Andrew Symonds
Chaminda Vaas
Venugopal Rao
Paidikalva Vijaykumar
Arjun Yadav
Nuwan Zoysa
Robin Singh (Coach)



Delhi Daredevils Players :


Virender Sehwag
Rajat Bhatia
AB de Villiers
Shikhar Dhawan
Tillakaratne Dilshan
Pradeep Sangwan
Daniel Vettori
Greg Shipperd (Coach)
Gautam Gambhir
Brett Geeves
Dinesh Karthik
Glenn McGrath
Farveez Maharoof
Shoaib Malik
Tejashwi Yadav
Yo Mahesh
Mithun Manhas
Amit Mishra
Mohammad Asif
Yogesh Nagar
Manoj Tiwary
Mayank Tehlan


Delhi Daredevils Players :

Virender Sehwag
Rajat Bhatia
AB de Villiers
Shikhar Dhawan
Tillakaratne Dilshan
Pradeep Sangwan
Daniel Vettori
Greg Shipperd (Coach)
Gautam Gambhir
Brett Geeves
Dinesh Karthik
Glenn McGrath
Farveez Maharoof
Shoaib Malik
Tejashwi Yadav
Yo Mahesh
Mithun Manhas
Amit Mishra
Mohammad Asif
Yogesh Nagar
Manoj Tiwary
Mayank Tehlan


Kings XI Punjab Players :


Yuvraj Singh
Ajitesh Argal
Piyush Chawla
Pankaj Dharmani
Rishi Dhawan
Irfan Pathan
Nitin Saini
Vikram Singh
Tanmay Srivastava
Karan Goel
James Hopes
Mahela Jayawardene
Simon Katich
Uday Kaul
Luke Pomersbach
Kumar Sangakkara
Sunny Sohal
Tom Moody (Coach)
Sahil Kukreja
Brett Lee
Shaun Marsh
Kyle Mills
Wilkin Mota
Ramesh Powar
Ramnaresh Sarwan
S Sreesanth


Mumbai Indians Players :


Sachin Tendulkar
Loots Bosman
Ankeet Chavan
Siddharth Chitnis
Gaurav Dhiman
Dilhara Fernando
Harbhajan Singh
Sanath Jayasuriya
Dominic Thornely
Lalchand Rajput (Coach)
Musavir Khote
Dhawal Kulkarni
Lasith Malinga
Abhishek Nayar
Ashish Nehra
Manish Pandey
Rajesh Pawar
Shaun Pollock
Saurabh Tiwary
Ashwell Prince
Ajinkya Rahane
Rohan Raje
Luke Ronchi
Pinal Shah (wk)
Swapnil Singh
Y Vijay Takawale (wk)
Robin Uthappa
Vikrant Yeligati

Rajasthan Royals Players :


Shane Warne
Aditya Angle
Swapnil Asnodkar
Ravindra Jadeja
Mohammad Kaif
Kamran Akmal (wk)
Sumit Khatri
Taruwar Kohli
Mahesh Rawat
Dimitri Mascarenhas
Parag More
Morne Morkel
Pankaj Singh
Munaf Patel
Niraj Patel
Yusuf Pathan
Anup Revandkar
Jaydev Shah
Graeme Smith
Sohail Tanvir
Siddharth Trivedi
Shane Watson
Younis Khan
Justin Langer
Dinesh Salunke

Bangalore Royal Challengers Players :


Rahul Dravid
Abdur Razzak
Balachandra Akhil
KP Appanna
Jagadeesh Arunkumar
Praveen Kumar
Devraj Patil
Vinay Kumar
Mark Boucher (wk)
Nathan Bracken
Shivnarine Chanderpaul
Bharat Chipli
Shreevats Goswami (wk)
Anil Kumble
Dale Steyn
Cameron White
Wasim Jaffer
Sunil Joshi
Jacques Kallis
Zaheer Khan
Virat Kohli
Misbah-ul-Haq
Ross Taylor
Venkatesh Prasad (Coach)


Mumbai Indians Players :

Sachin Tendulkar
Loots Bosman
Ankeet Chavan
Siddharth Chitnis
Gaurav Dhiman
Dilhara Fernando
Harbhajan Singh
Sanath Jayasuriya
Dominic Thornely
Lalchand Rajput (Coach)
Musavir Khote
Dhawal Kulkarni
Lasith Malinga
Abhishek Nayar
Ashish Nehra
Manish Pandey
Rajesh Pawar
Shaun Pollock
Saurabh Tiwary
Ashwell Prince
Ajinkya Rahane
Rohan Raje
Luke Ronchi
Pinal Shah (wk)
Swapnil Singh
Y Vijay Takawale (wk)
Robin Uthappa
Vikrant Yeligati

Deatils:
DLF Indian Premier League Homepage for latest scores and schedules

Online booking of DLF Indian Premier League Tickets

Flight and Hotel Bookings Domestic / International

Flight and Hotel Bookings Domestic / International:
Check for best deals, SMS / Email deal alerts, Credit card cash backs from different
Banks, Pay by different modes etc.

http://india.arzoo.com/index.jsp
http://www.makemytrip.com
http://www.travelguru.com
http://www.cleartrip.com
http://www.zoomtra.com
http://www.ezeego.com

What to read in DBMS and Oracle Architecture

What to read in DBMS and Oracle Architecture
- Architecture
- Installing the Oracle Database Software
- Creating an Oracle Database
- Managing the Oracle Instance
- Managing Database Storage Structures
- Administering User Security
- Managing Schema Objects
- Managing Data and Concurrency
- Managing Undo Data
- Implementing Oracle Database Security
- Configuring the Oracle Network Environment
- Proactive Maintenance
- Performance Management
- Backup and Recovery Concepts
- Performing Database Backup
- Performing Database Recovery
- Performing Flashback
- Moving Data
- Using Globalization Support Objectives
- Configuring Recovery Manager
- Recovering from User Errors
- Dealing with Database Corruption
- DBVERIFY
- Automatic Database Management
- Using Recovery Manager
- Recovering from Non-Critical Losses
- Monitoring and Managing Storage
- Automatic Storage Management
- Monitoring and Managing Memory
- Database Recovery
- Flashback Database
- Managing Resources
- Automating Tasks with the Scheduler
- Installation
- Server Configuration
- Load and Unload Data
- Automatic Management
- Manageability Infrastructure
- Application Tuning
- System Resource Management
- Automating Tasks with the Scheduler
- Space Management
- Improved VLDB Support
- Backup and Recovery Enhancements
- Flashback Any Error
- General Storage Enhancement
- Automatic Storage Management
- Maintain Software
- Security
- Miscellaneous New Features

Indian tech industry: Where It is ?

Indian tech industry: Where It is ?

It's a topic that has been oft debated - that India's tech industry is a lot like the Chinese manufacturing phenomenon - Low cost, reasonable quality, minimal innovation. I was an employee of a huge IT company in India (what the heck, it was TCS) and have, in the two years in their employ, developed certain opinions and concerns about the direction of India's IT revolution.

Here's how Indian IT companies operate (Infy, TCS, wipro and the second string such as mastek, satyam, patni etc). Hire engineers in bulk, never mind that they are not computer scientists or electrical engineers - if they can write a few lines of code in C/C++ and are academically decent, they're hired . After all, they dont need brilliant engineers - just people who will do as they are told and reasonably intelligent enough to get the client's work done, and bullshit their way out of it if they don't. They'll rarely make CAD software for Electrical engineering or mechanical engineering. Instead they will develop "end to end solutions" for banking, finance, inventory management, website development, etc. By develop I mean code, not design - there is a huge difference between the two, something which I will touch upon shortly. One important thing to note is that the HR in most IT companies dont give a damn about individual interests. They will put you wherever they need someone to slog for them . I've had one HR person tell me that they will put me in a project where they get maximum money, regard less if I am interested or not. And they wonder why so many people leave!!!

What is the nature of the work? At least 70% of the international projects in most indian IT companies is maintenence - i.e someone else has already developed an application. All you need to do is add more features/change behaviour as per client's request . Then there's production support, which is worse. It is almost call-center work - ensure that the application runs normally and if it fails, get it up and running ASAP. Take calls from the client, update on the status. In a sense, like a car mechanic - I didnt get an engineering degree to be a car mechanic - I got it to design the car! Finally, if you are lucky you get development - write code. But then, writing code is easy - it is like manufacturing a car. What is not, is designing a system that works efficiently. Typically, foreign clients get the design done by the likes of Accenture, IBM, etc. The designs are then sent to desi companies, who actually do the coding at a cost much cheaper than IBM or accenture. Thus, all we do is donkey work. It is not technology - it is programming. Technology is a new idea, paradigm or design - programming is implementing that design. Thus, most of the people in IT waste their engineering degrees, doing mundane programming, until they are made project managers - after which they spend their lives approving timesheets, conducting appraisals and sucking up to the client . Wait a second - shouldnt an experienced IT professional be doing advanced stuff and leave the bullshitting to MBAs?

Why is it so hard for desi companies to do design? The've not tried hard enough (yet) to get into this space. They just dont have the competence to get the job done. Desi companies are amazing at procedure oriented projects - if there is a procedure in place telling us what to do, we can do it. They dont have the experience (and therefore the brand equity) to attract IT consulting projects. Consulting is largely a reputation driven business. In order to build such a reputation, desi companies need to hire high-flying consulants - they dont come cheap. Even after all this, there is no guarantee of results! (Lately, Infy is trying to get into this space, I'm told, so good luck to them. I dont think TCS is though :-)) How many software products come out of Indian cos? IFlex is the only company to have a product successful worldwide. Making products is expensive and again, there is no guarantee of success - why risk it when services give me an assured income?

Why do we need to get into high end IT - consulting and products? Simply because the algorithm of low cost, low margin services will run it's course in the future. As payscales rise in india and the rupee appreciating wrt the dollar, margins become more and more slim. In time, India may not be as competitive as say Brasil or Russia - the American cos will take their projects out there! U can see trends in the manufacturing sector - earlier Taiwan was the manufacturing base for American cos, then SouthKorea and then these days, China For too long have we been stuck in the procedure oriented IT services. It is time to invest in consulting and products, and take Indian IT to the next level, or else I fear we will remain stuck in this low end nonsense.


Indian companies thus have 2 choices - identify and set shop in countries where the low cost, low margin algorithm can be applied (TCS seems to be taking this route) or enter into high end IT, which is independent of geography (Which Infy is trying) . I believe the latter is the better route - it is a high margin business and reasonably high tech. What is even better, is coming up with technology - like Java, efficient databases, advanced operating systems (Like Sun, Oracle or Microsoft). That is real tech. It's not that we can't do it. It's just that we dont want to risk it . But, nothing venture, nothing have! Desi companies' dont even do proper R&D!


Finally, a true story. Taiwan Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (TSMC) was huge in the chip manufacturing industry, making almost 60% profit. T hey could have got into chip design, and potentially, designed low cost chips. However, design is a risky business - what if the chip bombs? TSMC chose to stick to it's core competence - fabrication. In time, TSMC's profits have declined to 20% or so... they're still number one, but don't make as much money as they used to... Are we learning yet?

Important topics in SQL & PL/SQL, Native and other tools, Unix Tools, Oracle Forms and Reports

SQL & PL/SQL
Simple way to get number decimal (group) separator
"Holefinder" query
Getting node id in tree structure using OS directory syntax input string
Regular expressions in Oracle
Compress / decompress Oracle data package
Creating more demonstrable queries in SQL*Plus
SQL exercises with text data
Nice Calendar view
From javascript to ORACLE database SQL query demonstration

Tools
ODBC data importer
Quick drop all schema objects script
Pls2html - PL/SQL code html publishing with syntax highlighting
Sql2bat - Convert Sql*Plus script into a NT batch file
TSMap - Oracle tablespace map photographer
Oracle developer background engines manager
Oracle SQL*Plus script Organizer
Oracle Forms PL/SQL Code Counter
Fmbgrep - Oracle Forms Code Searcher

Miscellaneous
HTML analog of the unix oerr
Euro foreign exchange reference rates daily loader
E-mail commander - Administering database server by e-mail
Oracle Reports Server 6i buffer overflow vulnerability
"Oracle Server History" SVG example

Non-Oracle Stuff
Myrhythm - MIDI Rhythm Composer
Text animation examples using html marquee tag
Creating and Using Index-Organized XML Data

Oracle Forms
Sending mail from host command
Forms 6i server tips collection
Tetris game example
Checking connection status
Embedding Perl into Oracle Developer applications
Closing the Graphics Batch window from forms application
Oracle Forms XML Explorer
Evaluating expressions inside Oracle Forms number item
Text-to-Speech capabilities in Oracle Developer Applications
Getting WEB page content from Oracle Developer Application

Oracle Reports
Returning to parameter form after report completion
From report to excel export package
Page break in HTML report
Simple analog of forms HOST procedure for NT platform
Setting field attributes in HTML reports (including borders and background)

Gun Zip Oracle Data using Java Stored procedure

Zip/ Unzip Oracle data

GZIP - Compress / decompress oracle data package

Description: Implements pl/sql pack and unpack methods using JDK java.util.zip package for both RAW and BLOB Oracle types

Methods:


FUNCTION pack(buf IN raw) RETURN raw;
FUNCTION unpack(buf IN raw) RETURN raw;
PROCEDURE packBlob(src IN blob, dst IN OUT blob);
PROCEDURE unpackBlob(src IN blob, dst IN OUT blob);


Installation steps:


Create java class to implement gzip methods:
CREATE OR REPLACE JAVA SOURCE NAMED "GZIPImpl"
AS
import java.io.*;
import java.util.zip.*;
import java.sql.*;
import oracle.sql.*;

public class GZIPImpl
{
public static byte[] packRaw(byte[] b) {
ByteArrayOutputStream outBuffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream();
try {
GZIPOutputStream gzip = new GZIPOutputStream(outBuffer);
gzip.write(b);
gzip.close();
}
catch (IOException e) {
System.err.println(e);
}
return outBuffer.toByteArray();
}

public static byte[] unpackRaw(byte[] b) {
ByteArrayOutputStream outBuffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream();
ByteArrayInputStream inBuffer = new ByteArrayInputStream(b);
try {
GZIPInputStream gzip = new GZIPInputStream(inBuffer);
byte[] tmpBuffer = new byte[256];
int n;
while ((n = gzip.read(tmpBuffer)) >= 0)
outBuffer.write(tmpBuffer, 0, n);
}
catch (IOException e) {
System.err.println(e);
}
return outBuffer.toByteArray();
}

public static void packBlob(oracle.sql.BLOB srcBlob, oracle.sql.BLOB dstBlob[]) {
try {
OutputStream outBuffer = dstBlob[0].getBinaryOutputStream();
InputStream inBuffer = srcBlob.getBinaryStream();
GZIPOutputStream gzip = new GZIPOutputStream(outBuffer);
byte[] tmpBuffer = new byte[256];
int n;
while ((n = inBuffer.read(tmpBuffer)) >= 0)
gzip.write(tmpBuffer, 0, n);
gzip.close();
}
catch (SQLException e) {
System.err.println(e);
}
catch (IOException e) {
System.err.println(e);
}
}

public static void unpackBlob(oracle.sql.BLOB srcBlob, oracle.sql.BLOB dstBlob[]) {
try {
OutputStream outBuffer = dstBlob[0].getBinaryOutputStream();
InputStream inBuffer = srcBlob.getBinaryStream();
GZIPInputStream gzip = new GZIPInputStream(inBuffer);
byte[] tmpBuffer = new byte[256];
int n;
while ((n = gzip.read(tmpBuffer)) >= 0)
outBuffer.write(tmpBuffer, 0, n);
outBuffer.close();
}
catch (SQLException e) {
System.err.println(e);
}
catch (IOException e) {
System.err.println(e);
}
}

};
/

Compile java class and check for errors:
alter java source "GZIPImpl" compile
/
show errors

Create a wrapper PL/SQL package:
CREATE PACKAGE GZIP AS
FUNCTION pack(buf IN raw) RETURN raw;
FUNCTION unpack(buf IN raw) RETURN raw;
PROCEDURE packBlob(src IN blob, dst IN OUT blob);
PROCEDURE unpackBlob(src IN blob, dst IN OUT blob);
END;
/

CREATE PACKAGE BODY GZIP AS
FUNCTION pack(buf IN raw) RETURN raw
AS LANGUAGE JAVA
NAME 'GZIPImpl.packRaw(byte[]) return byte[]';

FUNCTION unpack(buf IN raw) RETURN raw
AS LANGUAGE JAVA
NAME 'GZIPImpl.unpackRaw(byte[]) return byte[]';

PROCEDURE packBlob(src IN blob, dst IN OUT blob)
AS LANGUAGE JAVA
NAME 'GZIPImpl.packBlob(oracle.sql.BLOB, oracle.sql.BLOB[])';

PROCEDURE unpackBlob(src IN blob, dst IN OUT blob)
AS LANGUAGE JAVA
NAME 'GZIPImpl.unpackBlob(oracle.sql.BLOB, oracle.sql.BLOB[])';
END;
/

Test GZIP package:
DECLARE
src varchar2(32767);
srcRaw raw(32767);
zip raw(32767);
unzip varchar2(32767);
tmp varchar2(250);
tmpRaw raw(250);
srcBlob BLOB;
zipBlob BLOB;
unzipBlob BLOB;
read_amount binary_integer;
BEGIN
src := 'Many sources of information contain redundant data or data that adds '||
'little to the stored information. This results in tremendous amounts '||
'of data being transferred between client and server applications or '||
'computers in general. The obvious solution to the problems of data '||
'storage and information transfer is to install additional storage '||
'devices and expand existing communication facilities. To do so, however, '||
'requires an increase in an organization''s operating costs. One method '||
'to alleviate a portion of data storage and information transfer is '||
'through the representation of data by more efficient code. This article '||
'shows how to compress and decompress data, efficiently and conveniently, '||
'from within your ORACLE applications using the GZIP package.';

DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('1. RAW TEST');
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('===========');

DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('1.1 SOURCE TEXT:');
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Cut = '||substr(src, 1, 60)||' ...');
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Length = '||length(src));

DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('1.2 COMPRESSED RAW:');
srcRaw := UTL_RAW.cast_to_raw(src); -- Don't forget explicit convertion!
zip := GZIP.pack(srcRaw);
tmp := '';
for i in 1 .. 15 loop
tmp := tmp||'0x'||UTL_RAW.substr(zip, i, 1)||' ';
end loop;
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Cut = '||tmp||' ...');
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Length = '||UTL_RAW.length(zip));

DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('1.3 DECOMPRESSED TEXT:');
unzip := UTL_RAW.cast_to_varchar2(GZIP.unpack(zip)); -- Decompress and convert to varchar2
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Cut = '||substr(unzip, 1, 60)||' ...');
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Length = '||length(unzip));

DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('2. BLOB TEST');
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('============');

-- Prepare temporary Blobs
DBMS_LOB.CreateTemporary(srcBlob, TRUE);
DBMS_LOB.CreateTemporary(zipBlob, TRUE);
DBMS_LOB.CreateTemporary(unzipBlob, TRUE);

DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('2.1 SOURCE BLOB:');
srcRaw := UTL_RAW.cast_to_raw(src); -- Don't forget explicit convertion!
DBMS_LOB.write(srcBlob, UTL_RAW.length(srcRaw), 1, srcRaw); -- Fill source blob
-- Print results
read_amount := 60;
DBMS_LOB.read(srcBlob, read_amount, 1, tmpRaw);
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Cut = '||UTL_RAW.cast_to_varchar2(tmpRaw)||' ...');
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Length = '||to_char(DBMS_LOB.GetLength(srcBlob)));

DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('2.2 COMPRESSED BLOB:');
GZIP.packBlob(srcBlob, zipBlob); -- Compress srcBlob into zipBlob
-- Print results
read_amount := 60;
DBMS_LOB.read(zipBlob, read_amount, 1, tmpRaw);
tmp := '';
for i in 1 .. 15 loop
tmp := tmp||'0x'||UTL_RAW.substr(tmpRaw, i, 1)||' ';
end loop;
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Cut = '||tmp||' ...');
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Length = '||to_char(DBMS_LOB.GetLength(zipBlob)));

DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line('2.3 DECOMPRESSED BLOB:');
GZIP.unpackBlob(zipBlob, unzipBlob); -- Decompress zipBlob into unzipBlob
-- Print results
read_amount := 60;
DBMS_LOB.read(unzipBlob, read_amount, 1, tmpRaw);
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Cut = '||UTL_RAW.cast_to_varchar2(tmpRaw)||' ...');
DBMS_OUTPUT.put_line(' Length = '||to_char(DBMS_LOB.GetLength(unzipBlob)));

-- Release temporary blobs
DBMS_LOB.FreeTemporary(srcBlob);
DBMS_LOB.FreeTemporary(zipBlob);
DBMS_LOB.FreeTemporary(unzipBlob);
END;
/

Code above should produce next results:

1. RAW TEST
===========
1.1 SOURCE TEXT:
Cut = Many sources of information contain redundant data or data t ...
Length = 754
1.2 COMPRESSED RAW:
Cut = 0x1F 0x8B 0x08 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x95 0x92 0xCB 0x8E 0x14 ...
Length = 408
1.3 DECOMPRESSED TEXT:
Cut = Many sources of information contain redundant data or data t ...
Length = 754
2. BLOB TEST
============
2.1 SOURCE BLOB:
Cut = Many sources of information contain redundant data or data t ...
Length = 754
2.2 COMPRESSED BLOB:
Cut = 0x1F 0x8B 0x08 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x00 0x95 0x92 0xCB 0x8E 0x14 ...
Length = 408
2.3 DECOMPRESSED BLOB:
Cut = Many sources of information contain redundant data or data t ...
Length = 754


Examples


Compress/decompress on fly stored data using DML (less when 4000 bytes in size):

insert into my_table (compressed_text) values (GZIP.pack(UTL_RAW.cast_to_raw('1234567890')));
select UTL_RAW.cast_to_varchar2(GZIP.unpack(compressed_text)) from my_table;

Compress/decompress BLOB stored data (size <= 4Gb):

DECLARE
SrcBlobLocator BLOB;
DstBlobLocator BLOB;
BEGIN
select blob_data into SrcBlobLocator from src_table where id=1;
select blob_data into DstBlobLocator from dst_table where id=1;
GZIP.packBlob(SrcBlobLocator, DstBlobLocator);
commit;
END;

Progress Software's products and solutions for ODBMS (Object Database Management System)

Real-time Object Database Management and Data Modeling
Progress ObjectStore is proven technology for developing high-performance object data management environments. It is an object database for Java and C++ applications that can cache data to deliver performance to users at in-memory speed.

Features At A Glance

New! Support for the Microsoft Windows 64-bit platform.

New! A Web-based System Administration Tool allows users to monitor, control and report on executing ObjectStore-related processes.

Efficient database management enables data storage capabilities that are ideal for object programming and object modeling environments like Java and C++, including support for the Java Data Object (JDO) API.

A flexible object programming model, Cache-Forward Architecture, lets data flow seamlessly between memory and the object database; no translation is necessary.

Distributed, persistent, transactional object caching that maintains data in-memory across all instances of the application, while guaranteeing data consistency.

Enterprise data services gives all the traditional services of an enterprise class C++ and Java database management system including clustering, online backup, replication, high availability and more.

A Web-based System Administration Tool allows users to monitor, control and report on executing ObjectStore-related processes.

Platform Support

Windows Vista, XP, Win2003 with Visual Studio .NET 2003 (32-bit only)

Windows Vista, XP, Win2003 with Visual Studio .NET 2005 SP1 (32-bit & 64-bit)

Redhat Linux 4.0 Update 4 with GCC 3.4.6 (32-bit & 64-bit)

HP-UX 11 V2 with a CC 3.63 (32-bit & 64-bit)

Solaris 10 with Sun Studio 9,10,11 (32-bit & 64-bit)

ObjectStore ODBMS (Object Database Management System) is a proven technology for developing solid, consistent, and high-performance applications. The ObjectStore embedded database provides a reliable, transactional persistent database management solution to enterprise database environments. With ObjectStore, Java and C++ developers can compliment their existing applications with:

Reliable and efficient database management. The ObjectStore embedded database is a highly efficient data storage solution that is ideal for object programming languages such as Java and C++.
Accelerated performance. Unlike relational database management systems which must retrieve related rows of data by executing joins at runtime, the ObjectStore object database stores and manages data components with their relationships intact. This reduces the code needed for your application and, therefore, the time to market and total cost of ownership of the application.
Faster time to market. Because of the seamless interface to C++ and Java, there is no need to write mapping code. With ObjectStore java database there is no JDBC or SQL, you simply use the native commands of the language of your choice.
Whether you are extending your business operations to the Internet, supporting a network infrastructure, or building leading-edge software to accommodate unlimited distributed transactions and users in real-time, ObjectStore gives companies an effective strategy to manage data distribution.

Objectstore Application Examples
Customer Service for Utility Providers

To keep the lights on, utility companies need to be alerted quickly to problems so that they can respond. A leading edge ObjectStore data management deployment includes Con Edison. With a reliable database management environment, Con Edison is able to monitor and manage the process of delivering power and perform the critical analysis they need to track the operation of the network.
Read Case Study >

ObjectStore enables C++ and Java database developers to:

Connect to existing enterprise database systems and cache data in the middle-tier to deliver it to users at in-memory speed.
Store and manage data objects with their relationships intact.
Enable multiple users and applications to concurrently access and update a massive database and at the same time, protect the logical and physical integrity of the data.
Distribute and maintain component data caches. Our local cache management scheme allows caching of large database datasets local to the application that needs them.
Make use of kernel threads, asynchronous I/O, and shared memory communication.

Sample Reqs for CADD ENGINEER with AutoCAD Knowledge

CADD ENGINEER
Designation : CADD ENGINEER

Industry type: Engineering/fabrication / machining

Education : Diploma (Mechanical)

No. of posts : 6

Job details : Working on fabrication /machine drawnings for industrial products

Functional area : Drafting using Autocad


Yrs of exp : 1 - 2 yrs

Desired profile : Exposure to industrial products, hands on experience with CAD Drawings.




WANTED DESIGN ENGINEER
Designation : Design Engineer


Industry type: Structural Steel Detailing / Rebar Detailing / Connection Designs


Education : BE Mechanical / Civil (Candidates passed out in the years 2006, 2007 freshers /experienced)

No. of posts : 20


Functional area : Designing


Location : Chennai

Yrs of exp : Fresher / 0 to 1 year


Skill Set: with AutoCAD Knowledge / Experienced will be an added advantage.

Homeopathy medical research

For over 200 years, homeopathy has been practiced throughout the world. Although it is the medicine of choice for millions of individuals including the British royal family, it still remains very much on the fringe of modern medicine.

Founded in Germany in the 1700s by Samuel Hahnemann, a German physician and chemist, homeopathy is based on the principle that "like cures like".

During an investigation of the physiological effects of Peruvian bark, an herb used in the treatment of malaria, Hahnemann noticed that while taking the bark he developed symptoms very similar to those of malaria.

Subsequent research of the medical literature led Hahnemann to the discovery that drug overdoses often produced symptoms that resembled the conditions treated by the drug. Hahnemann theorized that the curative effects of a substance resulted from its capacity to produce symptoms similar to those of the disease.

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Best deals on electronics goods:
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Jobs in SAP (FI, CO, MM, SD, PP, PM, HR, PS, CRM, SRM, QM, WM, APO, OIL IS, SEM, SBO, PLM etc)

EXCELLENT COMMUNICATION Skills need Only apply for this

Pls ignore this mail IF INTERVIEWED by ACCENTURE in last 3 months OR if U are a SAP USER or if you less than 1.5 YRS IN SAP itself (Implementation or Support)

Pls ignore this mail if interviewed by Accenture in last 3 months

Client is a Fortune 500 IT Co. (with Turnover of over 15.5 Billion Dollars & over 1.5 Lac Employees). Its a Global Mgmt Consulting and Technology services Company. It is hiring in large Nos for Permanent Posts of
SAP (FI, CO, MM, SD, PP, PM, HR, PS, CRM, SRM, QM, WM, APO, OIL IS, SEM, SBO, PLM etc)
ABAP, Netweaver, BW & Basis at levels of
Project Managers/ Team Leads / Sr Software Engineers / Software Engineers.
Work Locations: Bangalore/ Hyderabad/ Chennai/ Mumbai/ Pune/ Delhi.
Salary: Best in the Industry

If this is what you are looking for: Pls Reply to this mail with
Your UPDATED RESUME urgently (Pls mail Resume with 100% Genuine Qualifications & Experiences as they do stringent Background Checks).

& DO Provide us the following Info:
a) Are you OK for Bangalore or Mumbai or Hyderabad or Chennai or Delhi Pune:
b) Present Cost to Company:
c) Expected Cost to Company:
d) Mobile No. & Home Ph No.:
e) Have you given any Interview in ACCENTURE in last 3 months Y/N:
f) Total Exp (in Mon! ths):-
Experience in SAP (in Months)
Experience in which of these ABAP, Basis, BW, MM, Fico etc (in Months)
Full Life Cycles Implemented (if any):
g) Present Company & Location:
h) Whether interviewed by Accenture within last 3 months: (Y/N)
i) &nbs p;Joining Time Desired:
j) Passport No.(if any):
k) Date of Birth (MANDATORY) :
l) Pls reconfirm that all information given in your resume is true to your knowledge- Yes/ No:

As the No of Reqmts are large you can Forward this mail to your Friends/ Known ones who might be Interested for this.

Javed for MC Placements
Phone. : 011- 40591488
javed.mohammed@mc-placements.com

what is Alpha Five?

what is Alpha Five?
Alpha Five is software for building desktop and web database applications - applications that include report writing, intelligent email, web connectivity, backend database access, data browsers and security.

Alpha Five is "beginner friendly." You can define and manage databases — and create complete applications without programming. With Alpha Five's Action Scripting, Genies, and point-and-click interface you focus on building your solution, not on the programming details.

Professional developers benefit from Alpha Five's Xbasic language. You can create user defined functions and integrate external software libraries. Thousands of functions are included.

Productivity and simplicity are the trademarks of Alpha Software database solutions.

Alpha Five Version 9 Platinum Edition

Alpha Five Platinum offers everything in Version 8 plus: Full desktop and web read-write SQL Connectivity (including stored procedures), AJAX /WEB 2.0 support, Super Controls, Drill Down reporting and hundreds of new features for the rapid creation of robust Windows, and web based applications. If your applications are mission critical, then you want to go Platinum

Must read Books on databases, DBA activities and Database development and design

Sybex
Oracle8I DBA Bible
Jonathan Gennick
John Wiley & Sons
The Complete Oracle DBA Training Course, Student Edition
Lynnwood Brown
Prentice Hall PTR
Oracle Database Administration: The Essential Reference
David Kreines
O Reilly & Associates
Oracle DBA Automation Scripts
Rajendra Gutta
SAMS
Oracle Enterprise Manager 101
Lars Bo Vanting
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle RMAN Pocket Reference
Darl Kuhn
O Reilly & Associates
OCP: Oracle9i DBA Fundamentals II Study Guide
Doug Stuns
Sybex
Oracle DBA Tips and Techniques
Sumit Sarin
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
DBA s Guide to Databases Under Linux
David Egan
Syngress
So You Want to Be an Oracle Dba: Still More Useful Information, Scripts and Suggestions for the New and Experienced Oracle Dba
Stephen C. Ashmore
Writers Club Press
Oracle Database 10g SQL
Jason Price
McGraw-Hill
Oracle Database 10g New Features for the DBA: Mike Ault s Oracle Handbook for New Tuning Tips & Techniques (Oracle In-Focus series)
Mike Ault
Rampant TechPress

Database/DBA
Expert Oracle9i Database Administration
Sam R. Alapati
APress
Oracle9i for Dummies
Carol McCullough-Dieter
For Dummies
Oracle9i: The Complete Reference
Kevin Loney
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle9i DBA Handbook
Kevin Loney
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Perl for Oracle DBAs
Andy Duncan
O Reilly & Associates
Oracle8i: The Complete Reference (Book/CD-ROM Package)
Kevin Loney
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle9i RAC: Oracle Real Application Clusters Configuration and Internals
Mike Ault
Rampant TechPress
Oracle Internals: Tips, Tricks, and Techniques for DBAs
Donald K. Burleson
Auerbach Pub
Oracle Essentials : Oracle9i, Oracle8i & Oracle8 (2nd Edition)
Rick Greenwald
O Reilly & Associates
Oracle9i Administration and Management
Michael R. Ault
John Wiley & Sons
Oracle9i RMAN Backup & Recovery
Robert G. Freeman
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle8i DBA Handbook
Kevin Loney
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle 9i New Features
Robert G. Freeman
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle DBA Checklists Pocket Reference
Quest Software
O Reilly & Associates
Oracle9i Database Administrator: Implementation and Administration
Carol McCullough-Dieter
Course Technology
A Guide to Oracle9i
Joline Morrison
Course Technology
Oracle9i DBA 101
Marlene Theriault
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Practical Oracle 8i: Building Efficient Databases
Jonathan Lewis
Addison-Wesley Pub Co
Oracle9i: A Beginner s Guide
Michael Abbey
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Unix for Oracle DBAs Pocket Reference
Donald K. Burleson
O Reilly & Associates
Oracle8i for Dummies
Carol McCullough-Dieter
For Dummies
Oracle DBA 101
Marlene L. Theriault
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle8i Backup & Recovery
Rama Velpuri
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle8i Internal Services for Waits, Latches, Locks, and Memory
Steve Adams
O Reilly & Associates
Oracle 24x7 Tips and Techniques
Venkat S. Devraj
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle DBA Backup and Recovery Quick Reference
Charlie Russel
Prentice Hall PTR
Oracle8i: A Beginner s Guide
Michael Abbey
McGraw-Hill Osborne Media
Oracle9i DBA JumpStart
Bob Bryla

Environment and Our Society:

Environment and Us:

I would like to share some views with respect to the environment and what role we as individuals can play in protecting it. Most of us will be aware of the term global warming and that it is going to have a very severe impact on the whole eco-system (of which we humans are a part) within our life-span. So it is high time that we give a thought to the environment and how we affect it. I am no expert in this field (not even an amateur) but I recently heard some related views and thought them to be very logical. There is a small part which all of us can easily play and in turn create a big effect. So I feel that this message must be spread across to as many people as possible.

There is a concept called as a carbon footprint. In layman’s language, it is a measure of the harmfulness of the effect of an activity on the environment. Almost every action of our day to day life is associated with a carbon footprint. Here are some such examples:
•The electricity which you use is most probably thermally generated resulting in a lot of air pollution.
•The water which you use needs to be pumped using electricity.
•The soft drinks you drink and potato chips you eat are made in factories using a lot of water, electricity and generating their own emissions. Not to mention the waste generated out of the attractive packaging.
•The clothes you wear are made in mills which again use water, electricity and generate emissions.
•The cars, airplanes we use for traveling generate tremendous emissions.

So you can see that each and every aspect of our lives is harmful to the environment in varying degrees. We live our lives without even realizing this fact. So what can we do now?
We have to continue living our lives and we cannot stop that. What we can do is put in some more thought, examine our lifestyle and align it a bit. A bit from everyone is quite a lot. With economic growth, we are pampering ourselves to much more than what we actually need. What we really need is actually very less but since we have the money, we just splurge it. We go to malls for entertainment and are overwhelmed by the attractive displays and enticing discounts. We end up buying stuff just because it is on sale without even bothering whether we really need it or not. We gift others things which they never need or care about. Instead gift them small plants or saplings. Even if they don’t take care of it, it will survive for a few days and in those few days, it will offset some of the carbon footprint. We buy new mobile phones, computers, TV’s just because there is a new model in the market. The old one still satisfies our needs but it is discarded and becomes a large contributor to e-waste. We buy a big car when a small car is enough